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It is not a matter of not addressing, but making the whole matter about nestorianism, when I state things to the opposite, means that the meat of your argument is a strawman. (which is why I don't address it)If you don't want to address it, just say so. I'm fairly certain it does make sense, and that anyone who reads it without an anti-Theotokos axe to grind can come to the same conclusion.
Wait a minute...do you think that the Holy Trinity is a like a math problem, wherein the Father is 1/3 God, Jesus is 1/3 God, and the Holy Spirit is 1/3 God, such that St. Mary only gave birth to "part" of God? The phrase "all of God" here is suggesting that you have much more fundamental problems understanding the basics of Trinitarian theology than can be addressed in a discussion like this one, which is about a finer point concerning the Incarnation in particular (which is certainly itself part of the basics of Trinitarian theology, but I assume it would be fair to say presumes a baseline understanding of what the Holy Trinity 'is', in the sense of 'what Christians believe about the Holy Trinity').
How is it doing that? I ask because everyone who embraces the title Theotokos in reference to St. Mary would say the same. Here, I'll write it here myself, as it is something I am completely comfortable writing and believing as a Coptic Orthodox believer: St. Mary, the Theotokos, did not give birth to the Father or to the Holy Spirit. She gave birth to Christ Jesus, and because of this, in conformity with our belief that Jesus is God, we call her Theotokos.
Is there anything in what I have just written that suggests that St. Mary is some kind of goddess to us? Because it is nothing more or less than what we affirm by calling her Theotokos.
How is it a side discussion or a red herring when the anti-Theotokos posters and the Nestorians use the same arguments 1,592 years apart from one another? (Nestorius having been condemned at Ephesus in 431 for objecting exactly as people here are doing.)
The point is as I've written already that this set of objections has been the only historical objection of note to the term in the entire history of Christianity. Their form -- that is to say, the form that the Church rebuked at Ephesus -- originated with Nestorius (though he himself was influenced by those around him in his formative years, such as Diodore of Tarsus), and are carried on in our day by his followers in the Church of the East, which is why that particular church is often called Nestorian (somewhat pejoratively, as it was pointed out in the "Sects of Lebanon" video that at the time of Nestorius' presiding as bishop of Constantinople, the actual bishop of the Church of the East was Dadisho). It is clear that they embrace his objections to the term, though I guess they have many modern neo-Nestorians in the western churches who might make them feel a bit less lonely, should any of them stumble upon threads such as this one.
However as an example. When Jesus was crucified on the cross, did the Father get a scar? In the same way, when Jesus was born: were the Father and the Holy Spirit also born in the same body? Trinity is about the Three essences of the One God. So when the Father entrusted all judgment to the Son in scripture, did this mean He entrusted it to Himself? No, that would be modalism.
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