Obviously, I understand what it means to resist Satan. What I don't understand is why you wouldn't relate that to his binding.
There's nothing difficult about that at all. But, I don't see his binding as him being bound from warring against the saints. It doesn't say that is what he is bound from doing.
It's my position that, generally speaking, in Old Testament times people were not able to resist him because they didn't have the Holy Spirit dwelling in them. Being able to resist him is something that has been possible in New Testament times because Satan was bound and believers have authority over him because of the presence of the Holy Spirit dwelling in us.
No, you could not. The "thousands years is as a day" thing means that one day and a thousand years are no different to God because He created time and exists outside of time. It has nothing to do with a thousand years being a short period of time to God. It's actually no time at all to Him because He is not confined within the realm of time that He created.
Not explicitly, but if that was required there would be a lot of things that are written in Revelation 20 that we couldn't explain with explicit NT scripture. But, there is NT scripture which talks about the power of death being taken away from Satan (
Heb 2:14-15), His works being destroyed (
1 John 3:8), people being led from the power of Satan to the power of God (
Acts 26:15-18), and about Satan's power being restrained (
2 Thess 2:1-12). I believe those scriptures relate to the binding of Satan. For some reason you require other scripture which explicitly talks about Satan being in the abyss for 1,000 years or a long time. I don't think that is reasonable.
His binding isn't about him being completely incapacitated. You are thinking like a Premil here. It's about him being restrained and about him not being able to stop the gospel from being spread throughout the world. You talk about him hindering the gospel. What does that mean? Did he keep the gospel from being spread throughout the world? No, he did not. Of course he tried and made it difficult at times but he couldn't stop that from happening.
Are you purposely misrepresenting Amil here or are you just ignorant about what we believe? Our understanding is not based on Revelation, it is based on scriptures that I have told you about repeatedly such as
Hebrews 2:14-15,
1 John 3:8,
Acts 26:15-18 and
2 Thess 2:1-12. You think the gospels and epistles are silent on this, but Amils disagree with that. So, you can't claim that Amils base our view only on Revelation just because YOU can't see his binding referenced anywhere else. That is ridiculous.
Well, he persecuted God's people in OT times. So, this is it? Other than this you think Satan has been able to do things in NT times to exactly the same extent as he was in OT times? How can that be? What do you think passages like the following mean then?
Hebrews 2:14 Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that
by his death he might break the power of him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil— 15 and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death.
1 John 3:8 The one who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning.
The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
Acts 26:15 “Then I asked, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ “ ‘I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting,’ the Lord replied. 16 ‘Now get up and stand on your feet. I have appeared to you to appoint you as a servant and as a witness of what you have seen and will see of me. 17 I will rescue you from your own people and from the Gentiles.
I am sending you to them 18 to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, so that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me.’
Sure, but it talks a lot about the new covenant. I'm sure you understand that Gentiles are also under the new covenant and not just Jews.
I disagree. Gentiles were delivered from the fear of death under the new covenant every bit as much as the Jews were.
I just quoted these passages a little earlier.
1 John 3:8 The one who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning.
The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
He was bound from doing his work in the way he was used to doing in Old Testament times. He did not have to deal with the preaching of the gospel through the power of the Holy Spirit in Old Testament times.
Acts 26:15 “Then I asked, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ “ ‘I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting,’ the Lord replied. 16 ‘Now get up and stand on your feet. I have appeared to you to appoint you as a servant and as a witness of what you have seen and will see of me. 17 I will rescue you from your own people and from the Gentiles.
I am sending you to them 18 to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, so that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me.’
He was bound from continuing to keep the Gentiles in spiritual darkness the way he was able to do in Old Testament times. That's why Jesus commissioned Paul to be the apostle to the Gentiles and sent him "to them to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God".
I don't know how you can act as if Satan's activities had no change from OT to NT times in light of scriptures like these. Multitudes of Gentiles have been saved during NT times and been turned "from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God". How about during OT times? Not so much, right?
Except that they do. That's the difference in our views.
Not specifically, but do you require this type of explicit detail to prove that Jesus has been reigning for a long time already (since His resurrection)? Yet, that is what we both believe Revelation 20 is talking about in relation to Him reigning, right?
Yes, and what do you think that means?
You focus on what Satan is able to do and say nothing about what he is not able to do anymore the way he was in OT times. I don't get that. That is exactly how Premils think.
Is that a serious question? It shouldn't be. I've read the New Testament, so I'm well aware that the church was persecuted in the first century. The church was persecuted from the beginning, so if Satan was bound from persecuting the church then that means he was never actually bound at all. Think about that. Do you think he was bound at all for any period of time? If so, during what time period exactly?