Genesis 6:1-4, Sons of God, Giants in the earth, (Nephilim) are not angles who had relations with daughters of men!

[Bible Highlighter]

Jesus has TWO natures. Of which one is God.

Please go back and look at the verses I provided that show how Jesus had power during His earthly ministry.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

He died because of our sin. Had nothing to do with His body being a temple. Our bodies are temples too but we still die because of the sin nature in our flesh. Death entered the world through sin.

Not sure how you would think I don’t believe Jesus died for our sins. This has nothing to do with what I said. Jesus bore our sins in his body and not his spirit or soul. The body of Christ or his temple was dead temporarily but the Word lived on (who is God).

Not denying he had the power. He never stopped being God but He never used the power/authority of His own Deity.

Not true. That is 100% unbiblical.

John 5:21 KJV
For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them ; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.

But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.” (John 5:17) (NKJV)

This is in context to the Jews being upset because of Christ healing a man on the Sabbath. So Jesus is taking ownership of this healing.

 

[GenemZ]

Well, actually that is not the context of what Peter was talking about. See verse 15. People can easily distort Paul as teaching “Easy Believism” or a sin and still be saved type belief. Skip back and read 2 Peter 2:1 and 2 Peter 2:14.

What context? The fact remains that Paul's teachings are sometimes very hard to understand at first exposure. God did not spare us by making everything simple. Paul wrote things that only a more mature Christian would be able to grasp.

I am now listening to Romans being taught by my pastor who taught us Romans from the Greek. It was interesting to hear him tell us that Paul was a genius. The Greek used can be very exacting and precise unlike most English translations that allow us to wonder and speculate too easily.

 

[GenemZ]

Please go back and look at the verses I provided that show how Jesus had power during His earthly ministry.

I did explain how Jesus had power. Moses also had power. So did Elijah and Elisha...

God the Father was able to give grace without measure to Jesus since he was sinless.
For that reason Jesus could be trusted with power beyond any normal man could be.
Jesus walked on water. That does not mean he was functioning as God.

Keep mind... Peter also walked on water. But, Peter waivered because he had a sin nature that got in the way.

Jesus could be trusted with any power the Holy Spirit would provide him. We can't.

In Christ....

 

[Bible Highlighter]

What context?

Verse 15, as I said before.

The fact remains that Paul's teachings are sometimes very hard to understand at first exposure. God did not spare us by making everything simple. Paul wrote things that only a more mature Christian would be able to grasp.

But Peter is not talking about Paul’s words being hard to understand in reference to Isaiah 42:1 and if it is the soul of the Father or Jesus delighting in his servant. Generally speaking: Peter is referring to how it is easy to twist Paul’s words into a license to sin. .

 

[Bible Highlighter]

I did explain how Jesus had power. Moses also had power. So did Elijah and Elisha...

God the Father was able to give grace without measure to Jesus since he was sinless.
For that reason Jesus could be trusted with power beyond any normal man could be.
Jesus walked on water. That does not mean he was functioning as God.

Keep mind... Peter also walked on water. But, Peter waivered because he had a sin nature that got in the way.

Jesus could be trusted with any power the Holy Spirit would provide him. We can't.

In Christ....

Yes, He was functioning as God.

John 5:21 KJV
For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them ; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.

If we skip backup a bit, we read:

John 5:17 (NKJV)
“But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.”

If you were to read a little before verse 17, we learn that this is in context to the Jews being upset because of Christ healing a man on the Sabbath. So Jesus is taking ownership of this healing because He said He has been working (Just as the Father).

 

[Bible Highlighter]

I did explain how Jesus had power. Moses also had power. So did Elijah and Elisha...

God the Father was able to give grace without measure to Jesus since he was sinless.
For that reason Jesus could be trusted with power beyond any normal man could be.
Jesus walked on water. That does not mean he was functioning as God.

Keep mind... Peter also walked on water. But, Peter waivered because he had a sin nature that got in the way.

Jesus could be trusted with any power the Holy Spirit would provide him. We can't.

In Christ....

Yes, He was functioning as God.

#1. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6). Only God can absolve sins and give eternal life.
#2. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today. So Jesus is Omnipresent just as God is.
#3. Jesus can make His home or abode inside of us if we keep His commandments (John 14:15). This is a part of His divine power and or abilities as God. Humans born to two parents cannot make their homes inside other people.
#4. “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.” (John 2:11). This was a direct statement. Meaning, Christ’s miracle at the wedding of Cana manifested His glory. This was his first miracle done by Jesus, and it was a part of His showing forth His deity as God. The apostle John did not say that the Lord Jesus manifested the Holy Spirit’s glory, but His own glory.
#5. ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14). This was said by Jesus before the cross, and answering prayers is definitely a divine act of God. Please pay close attention to what Jesus said. He said, “I will do it“ in reference to answering prayer. So if a person prays for a healing in His name, he will do it. He will be the One who will heal them and do it.

 

[sawdust]

Not sure how you would think I don’t believe Jesus died for our sins. This has nothing to do with what I said. Jesus bore our sins in his body and not his spirit or soul. The body of Christ or his temple was dead temporarily but the Word lived on (who is God).


Not true. That is 100% unbiblical.

John 5:21 KJV
For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them ; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.

But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.” (John 5:17) (NKJV)

This is in context to the Jews being upset because of Christ healing a man on the Sabbath. So Jesus is taking ownership of this healing.

You said: 'The temple that is created can perish". Adam's body was created sinless just as Christ's body was born sinless. Did Adam die because "his temple was created and could perish" or did he die because he sinned? It has everything to do with what you said.

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

Jesus never acted by means of His own Divine right. He did and spoke only what the Father directed Him to do and say. As God, Jesus had every right to speak on His own authority but if He had done that then He would no longer qualify to die as a man for He would have no longer been in every way as us (except without sin).

We both cannot be correct.

True, but you can both be wrong. Just saying, as people tend to forget that.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

You said: 'The temple that is created can perish". Adam's body was created sinless just as Christ's body was born sinless. Did Adam die because "his temple was created and could perish" or did he die because he sinned? It has everything to do with what you said.

I did not bring up Adam and his sin. You did. I was referring to Jesus Christ. He had a body that died and yet the second person of the Trinity (Which is the Logos or Word lived on and did not die). In the three days and three nights: The Son (Logos) went to the heart of the Earth in the realm of the dead and declared a message to the spirits in prison (who perished in the flood) and also went to Abraham’s bosom (paradise) where the thief on the cross went when he died. After three days, the Logos or Son (along with the Father, and the Spirit) had resurrected to life His temple or dead body that laid in the tomb.

Adam died spiritually the day he ate of the wrong tree and he was prevented in eating of the tree of life whereby he would have lived forever. Adam’s one time sin passed sin upon all his offspring by the male seed. But seeing Jesus was born of the seed of the woman, he by-passed the curse of Adam and yet he was born with our flesh. Jesus took on our sins within the cup from the Father in His body in the Garden of Gethsemane. He was horribly whipped, and beaten, and He suffered on the cross greatly and His body died in our place for our sins. Now, mankind has a way of escape. They can accept the free love gift of eternal life through Jesus Christ by what He did with His death, burial, and resurrection. So a person today has a choice in either associating with the first Adam or the they can associate with the Last Adam (Which is Jesus Christ). The first Adam brings death, and the last Adam brings life.

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

Jesus never acted by means of His own Divine right. He did and spoke only what the Father directed Him to do and say. As God, Jesus had every right to speak on His own authority but if He had done that then He would no longer qualify to die as a man for He would have no longer been in every way as us (except without sin).

Then you have a contradiction in Scripture because Jesus did speak His own words. Remember, when He prayed and asked if there was some other way? These words were written down for the benefit of all believers by which we are reading now. Also, if Jesus said he also works as the Father works in John 5:17, then that means that the Father gave Him authority or permission to say those words. It does not mean that Jesus could not act of His own power or abilities because I have already demonstrated that with Scripture here. In other words, all things that are written down by Jesus (including the words where Jesus asked if there was some other way) was under the permission and authority for Him to say by God the Father. It does not mean Jesus could not express His own words. It simply means that everything He said was in line or agreement with the Father. Jesus did not act or speak outside of God the Father’s will. That is what He was saying. It does not mean Jesus did not do His own works as the Father works. Please read John 5:17 and then read that part of the chapter (that is connected) where he heals a guy on the Sabbath.

True, but you can both be wrong. Just saying, as people tend to forget that.

I am a singular human being and not two people in one. So this statement does not make any sense.
When I said, ”we” I was referring to you, and me in how we both cannot be correct. I was not referring to “we” as if there was another person with me or as if I was two people in one.

 

[GenemZ]

Yes, He was functioning as God.

#1. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6). Only God can absolve sins and give eternal life.
#2. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today. So Jesus is Omnipresent just as God is.
#3. Jesus can make His home or abode inside of us if we keep His commandments (John 14:15). This is a part of His divine power and or abilities as God. Humans born to two parents cannot make their homes inside other people.
#4. “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.” (John 2:11). This was a direct statement. Meaning, Christ’s miracle at the wedding of Cana manifested His glory. This was his first miracle done by Jesus, and it was a part of His showing forth His deity as God. The apostle John did not say that the Lord Jesus manifested the Holy Spirit’s glory, but His own glory.
#5. ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14). This was said by Jesus before the cross, and answering prayers is definitely a divine act of God. Please pay close attention to what Jesus said. He said, “I will do it“ in reference to answering prayer. So if a person prays for a healing in His name, he will do it. He will be the One who will heal them and do it.

Jesus was speaking prophetically... As a prophet... prophetically about Himself, whom He knew was to return to being God in power.

Jesus was not going around telling people that he was giving them eternal life at that moment he was telling them.

Jesus forgave sins, because He alone understood that the Cross would not fail to take place. Prophetically he knew.


When Jesus manifested His glory it was God's way to show that Jesus had God's full seal of approval.
That is glory being manifested. Just the same that power was supplied by the Holy Spirit as agreed upon
to make Himself become as a man.

Moses spoke and the Red Sea parted. That miracle did not make Moses into God.

Moses spoke and brought on the plagues in Egypt! That did not make Moses to be God either.

When God assigns His power to a man it reveals God is working with that man as a sign for others to follow him.

Jesus had to wait till after He died for our sins before he could return to being as God once again.
While on earth Jesus was not yet glorified (glorified from within Himself) until after He returned to Heaven!

​

Jesus said to her, “Mary!”​

​

She turned and said to Him, “Rabboni!” (which is to say, Teacher).​

Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; ​

but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your ​

Father, and to My God and your God.’ ” John 20:16-17​

Jesus was yet being manifested as the perfect man of God (second Adam) which Jesus had to remain
as being until He ascended to the Father, to return to being God once more!

​

Whoever believes in me, as Scripture has said, rivers of living water will flow from within them.”
By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive.

Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified. ​

On hearing his words, some of the people said, “Surely this man is the Prophet.” John 7:38-40​

​

Note! Jesus was not glorified as God until later!

Pentecost and the baptism of the Holy Spirit could not take place until after Jesus was glorified!

Giving a previews of glory was not the same thing as one standing there manifesting permanently glory!

Moses never claimed to being the one manifesting all the miracles and power that God supplied.

Unlike Moses, Jesus was being fully cognizant of who and what He was - (having come from
being God... and to be returning to being God) was able to lay claim to that truth about himself.

Yet, Jesus always said that all He manifested was from the Father, not Himself. For He had to
remain as a man in order to qualify to die in our place on the Cross!

grace and peace .................

 

[sawdust]

Then you have a contradiction in Scripture because Jesus did speak His own words.

No contradiction, just someone who cannot understand how Christ's humanity functioned while not calling upon His own Deity to do any works.

Have a nice day.

 

[GenemZ]

No contradiction, just someone who cannot understand how Christ's humanity functioned while not calling upon His own Deity to do any works.

Have a nice day.

Can not "yet" understand?

I was there at one time.. I was really dumb. (but, I knew I was)

 

[sawdust]

Can not "yet" understand?

I was there at one time.. I was really dumb. (but, I knew I was)

Yes, thankyou for the correction.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Jesus was speaking prophetically... As a prophet... prophetically about Himself, whom He knew was to return to being God in power.

Jesus was not going around telling people that he was giving them eternal life at that moment he was telling them.

Nope. Jesus said to Martha that He is the resurrection and the life and he (the person) who believes in Him though he were dead, yet shall he live. Jesus asked Martha if she believed this. Jesus is telling her to believe this now and not when He would be risen. Her reply was, Lord, I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of God.

John 11:25-27
”Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the Christ, the Son of God, which should come into the world.”

Jesus forgave sins, because He alone understood that the Cross would not fail to take place. Prophetically he knew.

You missed the entire point.

Jesus said that He has power on Earth to forgive sins.

Matthew 9:6
”But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins…”

Yet, the Jews knew that any regular human to forgive sin (absolve sin) is blasphemy.
They knew only God could absolve sin.

“Why doth this man thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only?” (Mark 2:7).

Yet, we know Jesus exercised this power as God.

​

Jesus said to her, “Mary!”​

​

She turned and said to Him, “Rabboni!” (which is to say, Teacher).​

Actually, this is heresy being espoused from a wrong bible translation.
A more accurate translation like the KJB says, “Master.”
A person can have a teacher, but that does not mean they would consider them as ”Master.”
A “Master” is somebody who is a person’s Lord in who they submit to in all things.

Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; ​

but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your ​

Father, and to My God and your God.’ ” John 20:16-17​

Jesus was yet being manifested as the perfect man of God (second Adam) which Jesus had to remain
as being until He ascended to the Father, to return to being God once more!

Not true. I already demonstrated that He acted as God in several verses.
This passage just shows that He had to complete His mission in entering the Heavenly temple by His blood and so that He could be our Heavenly High Priest between God the Father, and mankind. Going to the Father was a part of this process before He could return and be with His disciples for 40 days.

Whoever believes in me, as Scripture has said, rivers of living water will flow from within them.” ​

By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. ​

The Holy Spirit was not given to all believers until the New Covenant after Christ’s death and resurrection, but that does not mean that one could not have eternal life by believing in Jesus before the cross.

Even the Israelites that were led through the Red Sea were saved temporarily when they had faith in God to escape slavery from Egypt.

1 Corinthians 10:1-5

1 ”Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;​

2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;​

3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat;​

4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.​

5 But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness.”​

Those who passed through the Red sea drank of that Rock who is Jesus.
So they were once saved by Jesus.
But they did not continue in the faith with Christ, and they were overthrown in the wilderness.

Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified. ​

On hearing his words, some of the people said, “Surely this man is the Prophet.” John 7:38-40​

​

Note! Jesus was not glorified as God until later!

Pentecost and the baptism of the Holy Spirit could not take place until after Jesus was glorified!

Giving a previews of glory was not the same thing as one standing there manifesting permanently glory!

Moses never claimed to being the one manifesting all the miracles and power that God supplied.

Unlike Moses, Jesus was being fully cognizant of who and what He was - (having come from
being God... and to be returning to being God) was able to lay claim to that truth about himself.

Yet, Jesus always said that all He manifested was from the Father, not Himself. For He had to
remain as a man in order to qualify to die in our place on the Cross!

grace and peace .................

Well, I would take the phrase “Jesus was not yet glorified.” in John 7:39 as a reference to ”being received up into glory” in the second ascension of Jesus Christ, which took place after He was with His disciples for 40 days. (Note: The first ascension was when He told Mary not to touch Him because He needed to ascend to His father). At the second ascension: Jesus was glorified when He entered Heaven (i.e., received up into glory).

1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

So Jesus was glorified when He entered Heaven and sitting down at the right hand of God the Father (which took place after He ascended in front of many witnesses).

After Jesus did so, then the Holy Spirit was able to come to all (of which we see take place at Pentecost and later with Cornelius, and his family, etcetera). This is what is meant by the word “glorified” in John 7:39.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

To all:

Jesus functioned as God during His earthly ministry:

#1. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6). Only God can absolve sins and give eternal life (Also see “Side Note” below).​

#2. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today. So Jesus is Omnipresent just as God is.​

#3. Jesus can make His home or abode inside of us if we keep His commandments (John 14:15). This is a part of His divine power and or abilities as God. Humans born into this world cannot make their homes inside other people when they are adults.​

#4. “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.” (John 2:11). This was a direct statement. Meaning, Christ’s miracle at the wedding of Cana manifested His glory. This was his first miracle done by Jesus, and it was a part of His showing forth His deity as God. The apostle John did not say that the Lord Jesus manifested the Holy Spirit’s glory, but His own glory (Also see “Side Note” below).​

#5. ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14). This was said by Jesus before the cross, and answering prayers is definitely a divine act of God. Please pay close attention to what Jesus said. He said, “I will do it“ in reference to answering prayer. So if a person prays for a healing in His name, he will do it. He will be the One who will heal them and do it.​

#6. John 5:17 (NKJV) “But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.” If you were to read a little before verse 17, we learn that this is in context to the Jews being upset because of Christ healing a man on the Sabbath. So Jesus is taking ownership of this healing because He said He has been working (Just as the Father). John 5:19 says, “Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.”​

Side Note:

To those who believe that Jesus was not able to give eternal life during His earthly ministry, and He was only speaking prophetically of giving life (eternal life) after He was risen: Well, this false belief is easily refuted by John 11:24-26; For in this passage, Jesus stated He was the resurrection and the life, and then He asked if Martha believed this. Jesus did not ask her to wait to believe on Him for eternal life until after the Son of man was risen.

To those who doubt John 2:11 and say that Jesus was working a miracle of the Father only and glorifying only the Father here need to read and believe John 14:13-14. For it says, ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14).

 

[sawdust]

You missed the entire point.

You are the one who keeps missing the point. Jesus could do that because he was given authority from the Father. He did not do it on the basis of His own authority. He could not function as God while on earth otherwise he would have disqualified Himself from standing in our place on the Cross. He had to behave as a man in every way until He finished His saving work.

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

I am a singular human being and not two people in one. So this statement does not make any sense.
When I said, ”we” I was referring to you, and me in how we both cannot be correct. I was not referring to “we” as if there was another person with me or as if I was two people in one.

I was quoting you speaking to another person. You and him can both be wrong. If your'e not sure about a response try using the link function in the quote to take you back to the original. It might clarify things for you.

 

[Gregory Thompson]

People say the Nephilims are the giants whose fathers are angle that married women during those days.

I was not aware that angler fish tried that too.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

You are the one who keeps missing the point. Jesus could do that because he was given authority from the Father. He did not do it on the basis of His own authority. He could not function as God while on earth otherwise he would have disqualified Himself from standing in our place on the Cross. He had to behave as a man in every way until He finished His saving work.

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

And keep reading:

“And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14).

Jesus said that He will answer a person’s prayer and by doing so the Father may be glorified in the Son.

So during Christ’s ministry (before the cross): When a person prays to be healed and asks it in His name (in Jesus name), He will do it, and the Father would be glorified in the Son as a result. So just because Jesus is able to heal somebody by answering that prayer, does not mean the Father’s authority is being overridden or usurped.

Jesus said “that will I do.”
Jesus is answering the prayer!!!!
No usurping of the Father’s authority is going on.
The verse says that the Father is glorified in the Son if He answers the prayer (which could be healing, etcetera).

I was quoting you speaking to another person. You and him can both be wrong. If your'e not sure about a response try using the link function in the quote to take you back to the original. It might clarify things for you.

First, in my experience most people do not click on the quoted link to refer back to a post unless they are trying to do something special in replying to a person.

Second, for clarity: Generally it is best practice to provide a quote of the other poster above my quote so as to show whom you are referring to instead of confusing the issue that you were not replying to me. You made it sound like this was a part of our conversation, and not a part of what somebody else said. Personally, I like to communicate well to people as best I can and not to confuse them. Remember, Scripture says, God is not the author of confusion. So we should try our best to communicate well whereby they could not be potentially confused. For let’s face it. Do you believe you and every poster here clicks on the quoted links every time they reply? If not, then you are expecting something out of people that is unreasonable and or odd.

Three, Biblelesson is not a he (i.e., him), but she is a female. So that’s another thing you have gotten wrong here, my friend.

May God’s grace and peace shine upon you.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.

Did Jesus speak the following words of His own authority or the Father’s authority?

​

“O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me”​

​

Matthew 26:39 KJV
And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.

Did the Father want this cup to pass from Jesus as He desired? No. So while Jesus desired something of His own and spoke words of His own, I believe this was not contrary to His not speaking of His own authority in John 14:10 because He was only asking such a thing was possible if it aligned with the Father’s will. But the point here is that Jesus did speak on his own authority here because it was something He desired that was not a part of the Father’s plans.

 

[sawdust]

And keep reading:

“And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14).

Jesus said that He will answer a person’s prayer and by doing so the Father may be glorified in the Son.

So during Christ’s ministry (before the cross): When a person prays to be healed and asks it in His name (in Jesus name), He will do it, and the Father would be glorified in the Son as a result. So just because Jesus is able to heal somebody by answering that prayer, does not mean the Father’s authority is being overridden or usurped.

Jesus said “that will I do.”
Jesus is answering the prayer!!!!
No usurping of the Father’s authority is going on.
The verse says that the Father is glorified in the Son if He answers the prayer (which could be healing, etcetera).

Yes, because when we pray we pray to the Father in Jesus name because Jesus is the name that has been given all authority.

What are you talking about "usurping the Father's authority"? He was given authority to do the things He did on earth. He did not act on His own authority even though, being God, He had the authority within Himself to do the miracles, forgive sins, turn water to wine etc.

Did Jesus speak the following words of His own authority or the Father’s authority?
“O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me”Matthew 26:39 KJV
And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.

Did the Father want this cup to pass from Jesus as He desired? No. So while Jesus desired something of His own and spoke words of His own, I believe this was not contrary to His not speaking of His own authority in John 14:10 because He was only asking such a thing was possible if it aligned with the Father’s will. But the point here is that Jesus did speak on his own authority here because it was something He desired that was not a part of the Father’s plans.

Huh? You still don't seem to be getting it. Jesus did everything here on Earth as a man. He is not asking this cup to pass from Him as God. Jesus wasn't a robot programmed with the Father's will or a puppet, He was like us in every way except without sin. He had His own volition.

You seem to keep confusing His humanity with His Deity and I suspect this is because you think Jesus acted as God on His own authority during the incarnation rather than as a man under the authority of God the Father.

First, in my experience most people do not click on the quoted link to refer back to a post unless they are trying to do something special in replying to a person.

Second, for clarity: Generally it is best practice to provide a quote of the other poster above my quote so as to show whom you are referring to instead of confusing the issue that you were not replying to me. You made it sound like this was a part of our conversation, and not a part of what somebody else said. Personally, I like to communicate well to people as best I can and not to confuse them. Remember, Scripture says, God is not the author of confusion. So we should try our best to communicate well whereby they could not be potentially confused. For let’s face it. Do you believe you and every poster here clicks on the quoted links every time they reply? If not, then you are expecting something out of people that is unreasonable and or odd.

Three, Biblelesson is not a he (i.e., him), but they are a female. So that’s another thing you have gotten wrong here, my friend.

First. How many people are you sitting next to as they post on this forum to know what they are doing in order to have this experience?

Second. You click the link to review the conversation because we are not talking in real time and sometimes one needs to refresh their memory. I do it quite often. I didn't need to post a quote from someone else because I was quoting you. If you had followed a simple instruction like clicking the link instead of turning it into "War and Peace", you would have had clarity.

Three. If Biblelesson is worth her salt, she won't much care if people get it wrong. I get called he/him often on this forum, it has no bearing on the message of truth.

Fourth. The correct grammar is "she is a female" not "they are a female" so this is another thing you have gotten wrong here, my friend.

You have a nice day.