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Genesis 6:1-4, Sons of God, Giants in the earth, (Nephilim) are not angles who had relations with daughters of men!

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Because the Father and Son are distinct one reason being is the Father is Deity alone while the Son is both Deity and humanity.


Jesus does not have a physical body anymore, it was transformed into a spiritual body, a body made from the stuff of heaven. 1 Corinthians 15:44
Being "one with" does not mean being the same.


See, here is one of your assumptions because you do not understand what I'm saying. It is God speaking, not Jesus speaking through God. You appear to fail to recognise the distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as a man. Is.42:1 is God the Father speaking in regards to Jesus the man. Everything that comes to us from the Father comes to us through God the Son. The Father can say "my soul" just as a wife can say "my car" even if the car is in her husband's name alone because they are one. The Father and Son are not the same but whatever belongs to the Father belongs to the Son (and vice versa) because they are both God.


It would be much wiser to ask for clarification rather than assuming you understand the things you don't and then accusing others of making assumptions. :)
What is a soul according to the Bible?
 
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sawdust

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So let me get this straight. The Father is laying claim to the Son’s soul when He says “my soul.” The Father’s soul delights in His servant (the Son). You are saying the Son’s soul gives the Father the capacity to delight in the Son.

In other words, you are saying the Father is using the car (soul of Jesus) to delight in Jesus and yet this would mean Jesus does not share in the car or the soul? Jesus’ soul is not delighting in Himself even though it is the soul of Jesus. Is it no longer the soul of Jesus anymore when the Father uses his soul?

The verse does not say that the Father is able to delight in His servant (Jesus) because He now has taken ownership in the Son’s soul. You need a verse that says that. Your view here confuses the issue. You are not reading the verse and understanding what is being said.
It's not my view confusing the issue, it's your understanding of my view that is confusing. I can't work out how you come to the conclusion you do and I don't know how to say what I think any clearer.
 
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sawdust

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What is a soul according to the Bible?
In essence? Life, breath, consciousness. Soul created in the image and likeness of God? You and me and every other human being. It is the source of our awareness (of self and others), thinking (in all it's forms), emotion, conscience and volition. (Gen.1:27) It is who and what we are and what God saves from death. (Jam.5:20)
 
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It's not my view confusing the issue, it's your understanding of my view that is confusing. I can't work out how you come to the conclusion you do and I don't know how to say what I think any clearer.
Yet, I asked questions to clarify.
Also, what verse suggests that a soul can only be human? Obviously if God the Father says His soul delights in His servant (Jesus) whether or not He is taking ownership of Jesus’ soul in order to delight in His servant, it is still God the Father saying this in His being a solely a spirit being. So God the Father has a soul as a spirit being. To correct that fact is to correct what Isaiah 42:1 says. It sets up a hidden narrative that the Scriptures do not exactly talk about unless you can provide the verses for this.
 
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In essence? Life, breath, consciousness. Soul created in the image and likeness of God? You and me and every other human being. It is the source of our awareness (of self and others), thinking (in all its forms), emotion, conscience and volition. (Gen.1:27) It is who and what we are and what God saves from death. (Jam.5:20)
So you are saying that the Father was not capable of theses things without tapping into the future incarnation of Jesus Christ? Is God a slave to time?
 
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sawdust

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Yet, I asked questions to clarify.
Also, what verse suggests that a soul can only be human? Obviously if God the Father says His soul delights in His servant (Jesus) whether or not He is taking ownership of Jesus’ soul in order to delight in His servant, it is still God the Father saying this in His being a solely a spirit being. So God the Father has a soul as a spirit being. To correct that fact is to correct what Isaiah 42:1 says. It sets up a hidden narrative that the Scriptures do not exactly talk about unless you can provide the verses for this.
You asked "what is a soul?" I respond it is Life, breath, consciousness. Somehow, out of that, you suggest I am saying a soul can only be human. Animals have souls but they don't have souls created in the image and likeness of God, ergo not human.

I just don't know how to explain myself any better. It seems every time I try you simply come up with another distortion to what I'm saying.

So you are saying that the Father was not capable of theses things without tapping into the future incarnation of Jesus Christ? Is God a slave to time?
Not anything even close to that and again why you should even think it is beyond me. :scratch:

To be honest, you give me the impression you think the God who walked in the garden with Adam is someone different to the man whole walked on the earth 2,000 years ago. They are one and the same.

I can't see us getting anywhere productive here. So, may the peace of the Lord be with you.
 
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anetazo

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Humbly speaking. The nephillem, fallen angels, have capacity to impregnate women. The fallen angels refused to be born in the flesh. It explains why they can get women pregnant. In genesis chapter 3, the serpent, who is devil. Got Eve pregnant. Eve was beguiled by the serpent. Corinthians chapter11 will further document this. Jesus explains in gospel of Luke. That when person dies in the flesh, they are like angels in heaven. They don't marry. Because they're is no gender. It's simple to understand. The fallen angels have gender, because they refused to be born in the flesh. The Nephillen and the devil will go into lake of fire. Thier sentenced to death by God. Jude chapter 1 and Ezekiel chapter 28.
 
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You asked "what is a soul?" I respond it is Life, breath, consciousness. Somehow, out of that, you suggest I am saying a soul can only be human. Animals have souls but they don't have souls created in the image and likeness of God, ergo not human.

I just don't know how to explain myself any better. It seems every time I try you simply come up with another distortion to what I'm saying.


Not anything even close to that and again why you should even think it is beyond me. :scratch:

To be honest, you give me the impression you think the God who walked in the garden with Adam is someone different to the man whole walked on the earth 2,000 years ago. They are one and the same.

I can't see us getting anywhere productive here. So, may the peace of the Lord be with you.
I did like your definition for soul. Well said.
But the problem I have with your saying that God the Father did not have a soul of His own in Isaiah 42:1 is that…

#1. Your interpretation seeks to explain away the plain reading of Isaiah 42:1.
#2. Your interpretation makes God the Father dependent upon the creation (i.e., the physical Incarnation) in order for Him to have the capacity to delight in His soul involving His Servant (i.e., the Son). This violates the doctrine of Aseity. Aseity (from Latin a "from" and se "self", plus -ity) is the property by which God exists of and from Himself. Meaning, God does not depend on any cause other than Himself for His existence, realization, or end, and has within himself his own reason of existence.
#3. Your interpretation suggests God lives in all points in time all at once, which is an imaginary concept of time taken from time travel novels, and movies. While God most certainly has the power to do so, it would contradict Scripture in the fact that He could not rest on the seventh day because He would be working in another point in time. God could not offer one sacrifice for all time as Scripture says seeing He is continually sacrificing Jesus over and over and over again throughout all eternity.
 
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trophy33

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What is a soul according to the Bible?
A combination of flesh and spirit. Like water (spirit) put into some specific cup (flesh) - the unique result is a soul/personality/conciousness.
 
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To be honest, you give me the impression you think the God who walked in the garden with Adam is someone different to the man whole walked on the earth 2,000 years ago. They are one and the same.
The God who asked where Adam and Eve was when they knew that they were naked from their sin is a pre-incarnate appearance of Jesus Christ. But Jesus did not take on flesh yet until He was born through a virgin named Mary in Bethlehem.
 
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sawdust

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I did like your definition for soul. Well said.
But the problem I have with your saying that God the Father did not have a soul of His own in Isaiah 42:1 is that…

#1. Your interpretation seeks to explain away the plain reading of Isaiah 42:1.
#2. Your interpretation makes God the Father dependent upon the creation (i.e., the physical Incarnation) in order for Him to have the capacity to delight in His soul involving His Servant (i.e., the Son). This violates the doctrine of Aseity. Aseity (from Latin a "from" and se "self", plus -ity) is the property by which God exists of and from Himself. Meaning, God does not depend on any cause other than Himself for His existence, realization, or end, and has within himself his own reason of existence.
#3. Your interpretation suggests God lives in all points in time all at once, which is an imaginary concept of time taken from time travel novels, and movies. While God most certainly has the power to do so, it would contradict Scripture in the fact that He could not rest on the seventh day because He would be working in another point in time. God could not offer one sacrifice for all time as Scripture says seeing He is continually sacrificing Jesus over and over and over again throughout all eternity.
It doesn't do what you say, you only think it does because you are not really understanding what I'm saying in the first place. Again, it's not my interpretation. It's your interpretation of my thinking and I would really prefer you stop doing it because, quite frankly, you're doing a really lousy job. ;) :)

The God who asked where Adam and Eve was when they knew that they were naked from their sin is a pre-incarnate appearance of Jesus Christ. But Jesus did not take on flesh yet until He was born through a virgin named Mary in Bethlehem.
Jesus did not have to become flesh before He had a soul. (Heb.10:5) He is eternally Deity (spirit) and man (soul) uniquely begotten, uncreated. He does not have to rely on creation nor does the Father have to rely on creation but we have to rely on the Son if we want to know anything about the Father.
As far as your no.3 above I have no clue what you even mean by it. God is eternal.

If the Father had a soul then there would be no need of the Son. The Father could speak directly to us. He could have become flesh and died for us. The Son interprets the Father for us because Deity (alone) is far beyond our ability to be aware of or comprehend. The Father is Deity alone.
 
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GenemZ

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I did like your definition for soul. Well said.
But the problem I have with your saying that God the Father did not have a soul of His own in Isaiah 42:1 is that…
Isaiah 42:1 speaks not of the Father. It speaks of the Lord God of Israel who later manifested that same soul in Jesus.

Here is the Lord God of Israel... not to be confused for the Father.


'You will eat the old supply and clear out the old because of the new. Moreover,
I will make My dwelling among you, and My soul will not reject you.'I will also
walk among you and be your God, and you shall be My people."
Lev 26:10-12


grace and peace...........
 
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Isaiah 42:1 speaks not of the Father. It speaks of the Lord God of Israel who later manifested that same soul in Jesus.

Here is the Lord God of Israel... not to be confused for the Father.


'You will eat the old supply and clear out the old because of the new. Moreover,
I will make My dwelling among you, and My soul will not reject you.'I will also
walk among you and be your God, and you shall be My people."
Lev 26:10-12


grace and peace...........
But Isaiah 42:1 is clearly in reference to the Father because His soul delights in His servant who has the Spirit,. The Father is obviously is referring to His Son Jesus Christ. It’s clearly a Messianic verse. While I did not need a commentary to figure this out, this truth is confirmed by various Bible commentators.

Pulpit Commentary:

“There are comparatively few who deny that, in this place at any rate, the "Servant of the Lord" is the Messiah.”

Benson Commentary:

“My servant — Though he was the only Son of the Father, in a sense in which no creature, man or angel, was, is, or can be his son; see Hebrews 1:2-5; yet, as Mediator, and with respect to his human nature, he sustained the character, and appeared in the form of a servant, learned obedience to his Father’s will, practised it, and was continually employed in advancing the interests of his kingdom.“

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary:

”my servant— But this ideal is realized only in the antitypical Israel, its representative-man and Head, Messiah (compare Mt 2:15, with Ho 11:1). "Servant" was the position assumed by the Son of God throughout His humiliation.”
 
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Jesus did not have to become flesh before He had a soul. (Heb.10:5) He is eternally Deity (spirit) and man (soul) uniquely begotten, uncreated. He does not have to rely on creation nor does the Father have to rely on creation but we have to rely on the Son if we want to know anything about the Father.
Yes, Jesus is eternal. He is the second person of the Godhead or Trinity. Jesus is God. But Hebrews 10:5 does not say that He alone has a soul while the Father does not have a soul. Isaiah 42:1 refutes this line of thinking. There is no verse that says that the Father has possession of the Son’s soul in order to delight in the Son.

As far as your no.3 above I have no clue what you even mean by it. God is eternal.
People have a funny way of defining how God is eternal. Many would take this to mean that God currently exists in all points in time right now (including the past). But the Scriptures actually teach against this concept. As I said, God rested on the seventh day from all His work. But this would not be possible if He was also existing also in the six day creation in the past. Technically God would not be resting seeing He would be connected with Himself in the past in the six day creation. Hebrews talks about how Christ sacrificed himself once for all time. This again is not possible if God is living in all points in time (i.e., the past, etcetera). That would mean God would have to still be reliving out that moment on the cross even now, and He would be doing so over, and over and over and over and over and over again.

If that is your view of how God is eternal, then that does not line up with what the Bible says.

If the Father had a soul then there would be no need of the Son.
That’s you talking and not the Bible. Isaiah 42:1 basically says God the Father has a soul.
 
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biblelesson

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Yes, Jesus is eternal. He is the second person of the Godhead or Trinity. Jesus is God. But Hebrews 10:5 does not say that He alone has a soul while the Father does not have a soul. Isaiah 42:1 refutes this line of thinking. There is no verse that says that the Father has possession of the Son’s soul in order to delight in the Son.


People have a funny way of defining how God is eternal. Many would take this to mean that God currently exists in all points in time right now (including the past). But the Scriptures actually teach against this concept. As I said, God rested on the seventh day from all His work. But this would not be possible if He was also existing also in the six day creation in the past. Technically God would not be resting seeing He would be connected with Himself in the past in the six day creation. Hebrews talks about how Christ sacrificed himself once for all time. This again is not possible if God is living in all points in time (i.e., the past, etcetera). That would mean God would have to still be reliving out that moment on the cross even now, and He would be doing so over, and over and over and over and over and over again.

If that is your view of how God is eternal, then that does not line up with what the Bible says.


That’s you talking and not the Bible. Isaiah 42:1 basically says God the Father has a soul.
Jesus, who is God, came down to earth to do the work of the Father God. He came in the likeness of sinful flesh to redeem sinful fleshly man. After Jesus finished His work for the Father, He prayed to be restored back to His position with the Father before the world was created. John 17:4-5 KJV,
4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

Jesus no longer exist in the flesh. His flesh was put to death on the cross for our benefit, as He gave His body as a sacrifice for sin, 1 Peter 2:24 KJV. Jesus was raised in a glorified body. He is no longer a human being. And we will not be human as we will receive a body like Christ, Philippians 3:21 KJV, “Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.”

When Christ rose from the dead, He was restored back to the glory he had with the Father and His glory is described in Isaiah. Isaiah 9:6 KJV, foretells the birth of Jesus and tells us all of the names He is called by. “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.”

Revelation 1:8 KJV, tells us that Jesus is the beginning and the ending…the Almighty, “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”
 
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Jesus, who is God, came down to earth to do the work of the Father God. He came in the likeness of sinful flesh to redeem sinful fleshly man. After Jesus finished His work for the Father, He prayed to be restored back to His position with the Father before the world was created. John 17:4-5 KJV,
4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
I agree.


Jesus no longer exist in the flesh. His flesh was put to death on the cross for our benefit, as He gave His body as a sacrifice for sin, 1 Peter 2:24 KJV. Jesus was raised in a glorified body. He is no longer a human being. And we will not be human as we will receive a body like Christ, Philippians 3:21 KJV, “Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.”
I disagree.

Jesus said,

“Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see;​
for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.” (Luke 24:39) (KJB).​
The apostle Paul says in 1 Corinthians 15:

1 Corinthians 15:39-40 (KJB)

39 “All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men,​
another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds.​
40 There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of​
the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. “​

Paul defines how there are different kinds of flesh, and he does not say there is a celestial flesh. Flesh is identified as men, and animals which differ from one another. These are terrestrial (or earthly) beings. Celestial bodies (like angels) have one glory and the terrestrial (earthly inhabitants) is another kind of glory. They are not said that they can be mixed.

A glorified body is not taught in the Scriptures. Philippians 3:21 is not saying we will be changed to have a glorified body because Jesus has a glorified body. There is no such thing. The verse simply says Jesus has a glorious body. One can say that a professional model who works out and who is super toned up has a glorious body. That does not mean they have a glorified body. Jesus still had the nail prints in his hands for Thomas to see and feel. To make Jesus out to have a glorified body is to make the body of Jesus into being similar to the Nephilim (Which would be the result of having a body that is hybrid both flesh and spirit).

Speaking of Jesus, Hebrews 7:25 (KJB) says,

”…he ever liveth to make intercession for them.”​

Jesus says,

I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold,​
I am alive for evermore,” (Revelation 1:18) (KJB).​

How else will the valley of dry bones be resurrected again?
It will be by the power of the resurrection of Christ and they will have the same flesh that Jesus does.

”Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.” (John 11:24).

Side Note:

There are two different types of resurrections that should not be confused.
The resurrection which takes place in the “Caught Up Together” event (Rapture) is a spiritual body resurrection where the saints will be like that of angels. But this is temporary. After the 1,000 year reign of Christ, New Jerusalem will come down out of Heaven on the New Earth, and the raptured saints will receive their flesh and blood bodies in the likeness of Jesus. It is the same glorious body that He had before the cross during His earthly ministry (with the exception that there will be the nail prints, etcetera).

While there are other clues in Scripture, the two resurrections are alluded to by His words here:

For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven. But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.” (Matthew 22:30-32).

The words in blue mentioned above in Matthew 22 is in reference to the Rapture of the saints out of Abraham’s bosom and those who are still alive on the Earth. They will have the body like that of angels. The words in red in Matthew 22 is in reference to the physical flesh and blood resurrection that all saints will eventually have in time upon the New Earth.

When Christ rose from the dead, He was restored back to the glory he had with the Father and His glory is described in Isaiah. Isaiah 9:6 KJV, foretells the birth of Jesus and tells us all of the names He is called by. “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.”
I believe Jesus only suppressed His divine attribute of "having all knowledge" or His "Omniscience" (Which took place sometime before the world came into being). This is what I believe the "glory" that Jesus spoke of that He wished to share in again with the Father before the world existed in John 17:5. For Habakkuk 2:14 says, "For the earth shall be filled with the knowledge of the glory of the LORD, as the waters cover the sea." Also see 2 Corinthians 4:6.

The NLT is heretically wrong for saying that Jesus gave up His divine privileges In Philippians 2:7.
I believe the KJB that says, “But made himself of no reputation” is the true accurate rendering here.

Jesus had power as God during His earthly ministry:

1. Jesus said He has power to raise the dead to life just as the Father had power to raise the dead (John 5:21).​
2. Hebrews 1:3 talks about how Christ held all things together by the word of His power when He purged us of our sins.​
3. Jesus said, He would raise up this Temple (His body) three days later (John 2:19).​
4. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6).​
5 Jesus had power to take away the sins of the entire world (John 1:29).​
6. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today.​

As for the Father and Spirit doing miracles through Jesus:

We know the Father did works (miracles) through Jesus (John 14:8-12). We know Jesus cast out devils and healed others by the working of the Spirit (Matthew 12:22-32). But this is not in conflict with Jesus having His own power as God as I have demonstrated by the verses above.

Revelation 1:8 KJV, tells us that Jesus is the beginning and the ending…the Almighty, “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”
I agree. Jesus is God. The Word (that was made flesh) is eternal and has always existed. The Word is the second person of the glorious and beautiful Godhead (Trinity).
 
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sawdust

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Isaiah 42:1 refutes this line of thinking.
Who is speaking? Hint, look at verse 5. If you don't understand that Yahweh (Jehovah) is the pre-incarnate Lord Jesus Christ, you will never understand what I have been saying.
 
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Who is speaking? Hint, look at verse 5. If you don't understand that Yahweh (Jehovah) is the pre-incarnate Lord Jesus Christ, you will never understand what I have been saying.
Before you were saying it was the Father who has possession of the soul and now you appear to be changing your tune in reading Isaiah 42:1 to suggest that this this is Jesus?

Isaiah 42:1
“Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.”

Clearly this is a reference to God the Father saying His soul delights in His servant (Jesus) who has put His spirit (Holy Spirit) upon. Philippians 2 talks about how Jesus humbled Himself in being a servant. At Christs baptism, the Father said this is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased. The Holy Spirit came upon Him In the form of a dove.

As for verse 5, see my next post to you.
 
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Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
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Who is speaking? Hint, look at verse 5. If you don't understand that Yahweh (Jehovah) is the pre-incarnate Lord Jesus Christ, you will never understand what I have been saying.
Verse 5 is a change in who is speaking (Which would be YHWH - The I AM in Exodus 3 and John 8).
If you want to have your mind blown in regards to YWHW (LORD), check out this video here:


Blessings be unto you in the name of the LORD.
 
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GenemZ

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But Isaiah 42:1 is clearly in reference to the Father because His soul delights in His servant who has the Spirit,. The Father is obviously is referring to His Son Jesus Christ. It’s clearly a Messianic verse. While I did not need a commentary to figure this out, this truth is confirmed by various Bible commentators.

Pulpit Commentary:

“There are comparatively few who deny that, in this place at any rate, the "Servant of the Lord" is the Messiah.”

Benson Commentary:

“My servant — Though he was the only Son of the Father, in a sense in which no creature, man or angel, was, is, or can be his son; see Hebrews 1:2-5; yet, as Mediator, and with respect to his human nature, he sustained the character, and appeared in the form of a servant, learned obedience to his Father’s will, practised it, and was continually employed in advancing the interests of his kingdom.“

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary:

”my servant— But this ideal is realized only in the antitypical Israel, its representative-man and Head, Messiah (compare Mt 2:15, with Ho 11:1). "Servant" was the position assumed by the Son of God throughout His humiliation.”
Keep in mind.,. The Deity of Christ is ONE with the Father. His own Deity is pleased with His own Humanity!

Jesus came to earth as a servant, as a man. He was not here being as God. But, as the perfect Man of God!
He was the prototype for Christians to emulate and imitate as its been portioned to them by grace. For He
was being the author and finisher of OUR faith! What we are to walk in.

Who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God
a thing to be grasped/seized, but emptied himself, by taking the form of
a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human
form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death,
even death on a cross.
Philippians 2:6-8​
grace and peace ................​
 
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