Genesis 6:1-4, Sons of God, Giants in the earth, (Nephilim) are not angles who had relations with daughters of men!

[GenemZ]

I have a question. Referring to the genealogy of Jesus, the last verse, Luke 3:38 KJV, “Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.”

The questions are:
Does the genealogy of Jesus go all the way back to the creation in Genesis? Yes or No

Only Adam was able to be called "son of God." Because? As created?
He was perfect, sinless, and spiritual by nature. No one else since the fall
could be born a son of God. For none of us were born righteous/sinless.
To bring us into God's family we all need to be adopted by being born again.

Until Jesus came along? Adam had been the only created son of God.
Jesus was not created, but was uniquely born. Born unfallen. He was the
firstborn out from the dead (dead = all fallen humanity), and to be also
called the son of God.

As for us? We on the other hand are all born spiritually dead. Fallen. In our case,
in salvation, we need to be "adopted" by God.

​

The Spirit you received does not make you slaves, so that you live in fear ​

again; rather, the Spirit you received brought about your adoption to sonship. ​

And by him we cry, “Abba, Father.” Romans 8:15​

grace and peace ................

 

[Bible Highlighter]

You don't need a body to be human. Our humanity is in our soul. Those who have died in Christ haven't stopped being human because they have no body.

The Lord Jesus Christ has always been God and man (Deity and human) in the one person. It's because the Lord Jesus is eternally God and man that we can understand who and what God is.

The person who walked the earth in the Incarnation is the same person who walked with Adam in the Garden and spoke to the prophets etc.

Nowhere does the Bible teach that Jesus had a flesh and blood body before the Incarnation (As described in the gospels). If that is what you are teaching, that is a false teaching. The Incarnation of Jesus Christ happened at one point in time within history. Jesus did not have a flesh and blood body until Mary gave birth to His physical body in a manger (Which at that time He was a baby). Granted, Jesus made pre-incarnate appearances in the Old Testament, but this was not in any kind of physical human flesh and blood body.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

You don't need a body to be human. Our humanity is in our soul. Those who have died in Christ haven't stopped being human because they have no body.

The Lord Jesus Christ has always been God and man (Deity and human) in the one person. It's because the Lord Jesus is eternally God and man that we can understand who and what God is.

The person who walked the earth in the Incarnation is the same person who walked with Adam in the Garden and spoke to the prophets etc.

If a person tells others God the Father is human that would imply that God the Father has a human body (Which would be a teaching outside of the Bible).

So no. One is not human if they don’t have a human body. An angel acting like a human does not make him human. He is still an angel.

Please stick to the Bible alone, and do not go beyond what is written.

 

[sawdust]

Nowhere does the Bible teach that Jesus had a flesh and blood body before the Incarnation (As described in the gospels). If that is what you are teaching, that is a false teaching. The Incarnation of Jesus Christ happened at one point in time within history. Jesus did not have a flesh and blood body until Mary gave birth to His physical body in a manger (Which at that time He was a baby). Granted, Jesus made pre-incarnate appearances in the Old Testament, but this was not in any kind of physical human flesh and blood body.

If that's what you're getting from what I'm saying then I suggest you go and reread what I said.

 

[sawdust]

If a person tells others God the Father is human that would imply that God the Father has a human body (Which would be a teaching outside of the Bible).

So no. One is not human if they don’t have a human body. An angel acting like a human does not make him human. He is still an angel.

Please stick to the Bible alone, and do not go beyond what is written.

So all those who have died, who have no body as it has returned to the dust from which it came, these have all stopped being human?

God has a soul. That soul is in the word. That word is the Lord Jesus Christ. The soul of God is uncreated, uniquely begotten. The Father can speak of "My soul" because the Father and Son are one.

 

[GenemZ]

Please stick to the Bible alone, and do not go beyond what is written.

Please stick to the Bible.. and go beyond what you understand up till now, to discover what is written.

 

[GenemZ]

One is not human if they don’t have a human body.

Why do you think its called a "human body?"

Its a body for a human.

The human soul lives within that body as the means to "tabernacle" in this material world.

Men are souls. Men's souls have a human body.

Angels are spirits. Angels have an angelic body.

Angels do not cease being angels when they are not materialized.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Why do you think its called a "human body?"

Its a body for a human.

The human soul lives within that body as the means to "tabernacle" in this material world.

Men are souls. Men's souls have a human body.

Angels are spirits. Angels have an angelic body.

Angels do not cease being angels when they are not materialized.

I would agree. I did not see it that way until you explained it. Well said. My point was saying that God the Father cannot be said to be human. Jesus or the Word made flesh? Yes. Most definitely.

Grace and peace be unto you in the Lord.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

So all those who have died, who have no body as it has returned to the dust from which it came, these have all stopped being human?

God has a soul. That soul is in the word. That word is the Lord Jesus Christ. The soul of God is uncreated, uniquely begotten. The Father can speak of "My soul" because the Father and Son are one.

That could be one possibility. But we don’t know for sure. Based on studying the soul and the spirit involving the Bible before, I believe a soul is simply a being’s mind, will, and emotions.

 

[sawdust]

That could be one possibility. But we don’t know for sure. Based on studying the soul and the spirit involving the Bible before, I believe a soul is simply a being’s mind, will, and emotions.

One possibility? What other possibilities would cover Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration for example? Are you honestly asking us to believe they were no longer human?

It would appear you are uncertain. Don't assume the rest of us are.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

One possibility? What other possibilities would cover Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration for example? Are you honestly asking us to believe they were no longer human?

Look. I believe people who die still retain a human soul.
What I am saying is to be careful with the term because it is not correct to say God the Father is a human. That would be incorrect to say that. Yet, God the Father has a soul.

It would appear you are uncertain. Don't assume the rest of us are.

Do you have a Bible verse to back up your claims? Where does the Bible say that the Father is speaking on behalf of the Son and not Himself when He is talking about His soul? When Jesus said that He is doing what the Father commanded, does that mean Jesus was commanding Himself? When Jesus was praying to the Father, does that mean Jesus was praying to Himself? Did the Father actually send Himself to the cross and it wasn’t really Jesus? In other words, your assumptions doesn’t mean you are right by any means. I do believe certain things in the Bible are true beyond a shadow of a doubt. I believe the Trinity is true. I am also certain about the existence of false doctrines or beliefs that are being pushed today (Like: Once Saved Always Saved, and your future sins are forgiven you are just two to name a few).

 

[sawdust]

What I am saying is to be careful with the term because it is not correct to say God the Father is a human. That would be incorrect to say that. Yet, God the Father has a soul.

Show me where I said God the Father is a human! You are putting words into my mouth because you don't understand what I am saying.

God has a soul. The Father is a Spirit (Deity only). The soul of God is in the Son (Deity and humanity). The Father and Son are one.

 

[sawdust]

In other words, your assumptions doesn’t mean you are right by any means

You're a bit cheeky mate.

You screw up what I'm saying then accuse me of making assumptions. Strewth!

ROFL

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Show me where I said God the Father is a human! You are putting words into my mouth because you don't understand what I am saying.

So why can God the Father not be said to be a human? Yet, Jesus is a human (i.e., He still has a physical body) and yet He is also God.
So if Jesus has a physical body and He is one with the Father, then God the Father is a human because He is one with Jesus? This is the same logic that you are using with your point about the Father saying He has a soul. You believe the Father is not really saying He has a soul, but it is Jesus speaking through Him because they are one. This does not work with a reading of Isaiah 42:1 because God the Father is praising the Son. Jesus is not praising Himself through the Father In Isaiah 42:1. The Father is praising Jesus in Isaiah 42:1. So this means that God the Father has a soul. I would propose that this soul is merely the mind, will, and emotions of the person of God the Father, and not the entirely of the Godhead or Trinity in Isaiah 42:1.

God has a soul. The Father is a Spirit (Deity only). The soul of God is in the Son (Deity and humanity). The Father and Son are one.

Isaiah 42:1 appears to refute this idea because the Father is praising the Son. It’s not the Son praising Himself through the Father. Jesus teaches us in the Scriptures about us to be humble and not to uplift ourselves. Jesus humbled Himself to the point of death in obedience to the Father and Jesus was not following His own path but He was following the commands of His Father. So when Jesus obeyed the Father’s commands in the New Testament He was being a servant and the Father then could give Him praise in doing so. This praise is what we see in Isaiah 42:1. It was a prophecy of the Father’s delight in Jesus’ obedience as a servant in His ministry, sufferings, and in going to the cross.

Grace, peace, and blessings be unto you in the Lord.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

You're a bit cheeky mate.

You screw up what I'm saying then accuse me of making assumptions. Strewth!

ROFL

While I did not understand your position on this point fully does not mean you are not making assumptions on the point about how you say that when God says He has a soul it is actually a reference only to Jesus. After looking at Isaiah 42:1 and thinking about what that verse is saying in its fulfillment, your claim does not make sense in light of this verse. Jesus is not praising Himself through the Father. The Father is praising Jesus and we see Him do that even in the NT. The Father says, “This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” (Matthew 3:17). Jesus said, “for I do always those things that please him.” (John 8:29). So this does not mean… Jesus always does what pleases Himself through the Father and the Father is not really involved in any way. Jesus literally means He pleases the Father and it is not in reference to how He is pleasing only Himself and the Father is not actually pleased. So in Isaiah 42:1, when the Father says His soul delights in His servant (Jesus) this is actually the Father saying this and it is not Jesus saying this through the Father.

 

[GenemZ]

I would agree. I did not see it that way until you explained it. Well said. My point was saying that God the Father cannot be said to be human. Jesus or the Word made flesh? Yes. Most definitely.

That is why God the Son has two natures in union. So that God can be human when its good to be, and be God when its good to be.

How could the Soul of Jesus interpret God for us without fully knowing God to begin with?

John 1:18 tells us that Jesus interprets God for us in a manner that humans understand. Two natures in union at work!

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God ​

and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known."​

I used to correspond with a pastor who taught from the Greek and Hebrew. He told me that the Greek word found in John 1:18, in regards to the function of Jesus making God knowable to us, is the same Greek word commanded of the pastor to exegete the Scriptures.
Meaning, Jesus interprets what is foreign to our thinking concerning what we can not understand normally about God... and having both natures to do so, interprets the Father to us so we can know Him perfectly as humans!

I later discovered that the Amplified Bible rendered what the pastor had shown me as follows.

First a standard translation:

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God ​

and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known."​

Now, for the clarification of the Amplified translation.

[He has revealed Him and brought Him out where He can be seen; ​

He has interpreted Him and He has made Him known].​

That is why Jesus, being both fully God and fully man, is the PERFECT one to interpret God the Father to all mankind!

​

​

Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? ​

​

Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? John 14:9​

In other words? Jesus being as a man is explaining God to us in a manner that we as humans can perfectly relate to God!

The concept of the hypostatic union of Christ remains only complicated as long as its not explained well enough.
For Jesus is the Father making Himself knowable to man, by means of an absolutely dedicated man to God, expressing
what needs to be known to man.

Yet? Jesus Christ is also a man who is fully knowing God as much as man could ever know God!

That means?

All we can ever know about God throughout all eternity is already being fully known by the Lord Jesus Christ!

grace and peace!

 

[Godisgreat_77]

Watching pegging videos is sin my brother?

 

[Bible Highlighter]

That is why God the Son has two natures in union. So that God can be human when its good to be, and be God when its good to be.

How could the Soul of Jesus interpret God for us without fully knowing God to begin with?

John 1:18 tells us that Jesus interprets God for us in a manner that humans understand. Two natures in union at work!

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God ​

and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known."​

I used to correspond with a pastor who taught from the Greek and Hebrew. He told me that the Greek word found in John 1:18, in regards to the function of Jesus making God knowable to us, is the same Greek word commanded of the pastor to exegete the Scriptures.
Meaning, Jesus interprets what is foreign to our thinking concerning what we can not understand normally about God... and having both natures to do so, interprets the Father to us so we can know Him perfectly as humans!

I later discovered that the Amplified Bible rendered what the pastor had shown me as follows.

First a standard translation:

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God ​

and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known."​

Now, for the clarification of the Amplified translation.

[He has revealed Him and brought Him out where He can be seen; ​

He has interpreted Him and He has made Him known].​

That is why Jesus, being both fully God and fully man, is the PERFECT one to interpret God the Father to all mankind!

​

​

Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? ​

​

Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? John 14:9​

In other words? Jesus being as a man is explaining God to us in a manner that we as humans can perfectly relate to God!

The concept of the hypostatic union of Christ remains only complicated as long as its not explained well enough.
For Jesus is the Father making Himself knowable to man, by means of an absolutely dedicated man to God, expressing
what needs to be known to man.

Yet? Jesus Christ is also a man who is fully knowing God as much as man could ever know God!

That means?

All we can ever know about God throughout all eternity is already being fully known by the Lord Jesus Christ!

grace and peace!

I believe Jesus dwells in the Father and the Father dwells in Jesus. I believe John 14 in what it says in that the disciples do see the Father through Jesus (especially because Jesus did the works by the Father). Yet, there are Scriptures that clearly testify that Jesus has power that is unique to Him during His earthly ministry. To deny the distinctions in the Godhead or Trinity is to fall into the error of Modalism.

Again, in Isaiah 42:1, it was not Jesus talking through the Father because it was the Father delighting in Jesus being His servant (which is prophetic of Jesus obeying the Father in everything He was commanded to do by the Father). So Isaiah 42:1 is declaring the truth about the Father’s soul (mind, will, and emotions) being expressed.

As for Greek word studies: While I am not against looking to the Greek in the NT, and using it if aligns with the English, I would not claim 100% authority by it because myself and most others are not Greek experts. They would have to be able to speak, write, read Modern Greek, and Kione Greek and be considered an official expert in these languages for me to even consider what they have to say. Even then, they cannot speak against what is in my Bible in English.

 

[sawdust]

So why can God the Father not be said to be a human?

Because the Father and Son are distinct one reason being is the Father is Deity alone while the Son is both Deity and humanity.

Yet, Jesus is a human (i.e., He still has a physical body) and yet He is also God.
So if Jesus has a physical body and He is one with the Father, then God the Father is a human because He is one with Jesus?

Jesus does not have a physical body anymore, it was transformed into a spiritual body, a body made from the stuff of heaven. 1 Corinthians 15:44
Being "one with" does not mean being the same.

You believe the Father is not really saying He has a soul, but it is Jesus speaking through Him because they are one.

See, here is one of your assumptions because you do not understand what I'm saying. It is God speaking, not Jesus speaking through God. You appear to fail to recognise the distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as a man. Is.42:1 is God the Father speaking in regards to Jesus the man. Everything that comes to us from the Father comes to us through God the Son. The Father can say "my soul" just as a wife can say "my car" even if the car is in her husband's name alone because they are one. The Father and Son are not the same but whatever belongs to the Father belongs to the Son (and vice versa) because they are both God.

While I did not understand your position on this point fully does not mean you are not making assumptions on the point about how you say that when God says He has a soul it is actually a reference only to Jesus.

It would be much wiser to ask for clarification rather than assuming you understand the things you don't and then accusing others of making assumptions.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Because the Father and Son are distinct one reason being is the Father is Deity alone while the Son is both Deity and humanity.


Jesus does not have a physical body anymore, it was transformed into a spiritual body, a body made from the stuff of heaven. 1 Corinthians 15:44
Being "one with" does not mean being the same.


See, here is one of your assumptions because you do not understand what I'm saying. It is God speaking, not Jesus speaking through God. You appear to fail to recognise the distinction between Jesus as God and Jesus as a man. Is.42:1 is God the Father speaking in regards to Jesus the man. Everything that comes to us from the Father comes to us through God the Son. The Father can say "my soul" just as a wife can say "my car" even if the car is in her husband's name alone because they are one. The Father and Son are not the same but whatever belongs to the Father belongs to the Son (and vice versa) because they are both God.


It would be much wiser to ask for clarification rather than assuming you understand the things you don't and then accusing others of making assumptions.

So let me get this straight. The Father is laying claim to the Son’s soul when He says “my soul.” The Father’s soul delights in His servant (the Son). You are saying the Son’s soul gives the Father the capacity to delight in the Son.

In other words, you are saying the Father is using the car (soul of Jesus) to delight in Jesus and yet this would mean Jesus does not share in the car or the soul? Jesus’ soul is not delighting in Himself even though it is the soul of Jesus. Is it no longer the soul of Jesus anymore when the Father uses his soul?

The verse does not say that the Father is able to delight in His servant (Jesus) because He now has taken ownership in the Son’s soul. You need a verse that says that. Your view here confuses the issue. You are not reading the verse and understanding what is being said.