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Why the weekly Sabbath (Saturday) is the Lord's Day, in the Bible

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HIM

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Where do you see koinos as being different than akathartos?
In the text by the disjunctive particle "or".

In the vision Peter only seen two kinds, common and unclean; though there were all manner of four footed beasts. They were not to eat anything that touch something that was unclean. If something did it was ceremonial defiled, common.

Acts 10:12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
Acts 10:13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
Acts 10:14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
Acts 10:15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
Acts 10:16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.

Lev 7:21 Moreover the soul that shall touch any unclean thing, as the uncleanness of man, or any unclean beast, or any abominable unclean thing, and eat of the flesh of the sacrifice of peace offerings, which pertain unto the LORD, even that soul shall be cut off from his people.

By making them different you're saying:
  • There are common animals
    • There are also unclean animals
  • God cleansed the common
    • God did not cleanse the unclean
God said call not what he had cleansed common. Never mentioning the unclean being cleansed only that which was defiled by that which is unclean.
Same question as questions about Acts.

I'm not aware of any usage in the OC Scriptures of koinos or koinoō. I am aware of extensive instruction in the OC Scripture and some usage in the NC re: akathartos-unclean (most of the NC having to do with unclean spirits).

Yes, as I said, I looked at this section of Scripture many, many times and noticed 10:28 & God's command in 11:9. Honestly, at the time I wanted there to be food laws and 10:28 was my fallback conclusion. But I was never settled.

Acts10:28 seems to tie koinos & akarthatos together or Peter could still be seeing men as akarthatos since, per what you seem to have said above, God did not cleanse them - but only cleansed the kainos man .

And then we do have Rom14 & 1Cor8:

NKJ Rom14:14-18 I know and am convinced by the Lord Jesus that there is nothing unclean koinos-common of itself; but to him who considers anything to be unclean koinos-common, to him it is unclean koinos-common. 15 Yet if your brother is grieved because of your food, you are no longer walking in love. Do not destroy with your food the one for whom Christ died. 16 Therefore do not let your good be spoken of as evil; 17 for the kingdom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit. 18 For he who serves Christ in these things is acceptable-pleasing to God and approved by dokimos-valuable to men.
  • Spiritually, the KOG is not eating & drinking.
    • Issues of foods being koinos seems to be a mindset issue.
  • 1Cor8:3-6 There is one God - so-called gods & idols are nothing.
    • 1Cor8:7 those with weak consciences eat foods offered to idols and their weak consciences are molunō-soiled/stained.
    • 1Cor8:8 Food does not present/prove us to God:
      • We don't abound if we eat.
      • We don't lack if we don't eat.
    • This is Rom14:17 in different statements/terminology.
    • This is Jesus' instruction re: kainos in Matt15 & Mark7 - food does not make a man kainos-common - sin in man's heart coming out makes a man kainos-common.
The word for unclean is not in those text.
I suppose you mean "Christ".
No not like you appear to be implying. What is the NC? How does Deut 30;10-14 and Romans 10:6-8 compare to Heb. 8:10.
As for food on a physical plane: I've been observant of food as it relates to physical health issues for over 4 decades. I read and studied OC food laws. One example I recall is some fish that God says not to eat. In researching it I found it to basically be functioning as a water filter - cleansing the water of filth. I thought and still think it makes sense not to eat water filters & to let the Creator instruct us on such matters. As I look around and having done so for those decades, it's little to no wonder to me why there is so much physical sickness and, with the physcho somatic ties in the flesh, why there are some mental issues. BUT, based on what I read, food is not stronger than Christ and does not present us to God.
Awesome! Hence why God said not to eat.
 
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HIM

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We both agree the Law is not for us, as a whole and in its literal meaning.
I am not interested in going down any rabbit hole with you and We have nothing in common presently.

The text says
Is for sinners and for sound doctrine. Present tense not past. The law is to be used lawfully If we are sinning or want sound doctrine. Paul was speaking to Timothy instructing him for the church. Saying it is not doesn't change what God said through Paul to the church through Timothy.

1Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

And it is not one verse it is several. As the following verse showed you.
No. Paul's words through God were for the Church in Christ. For he said them to Timothy in the New Testament that the Law was for the sinner and for sound doctrine. As He said elsewhere that The Scripture was for correction and reproof and instruction in righteousness. And through cheerful enduring patience and comfort of the Scriptures we may have hope.

2Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Rom 15:4 For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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The teaching that Adam and Eve didn't know God rested, sanctified and made Holy the 7th day of creation after HE created them, and blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth, is total "Conjecture". Where were Adam and Eve when God sanctified His Sabbath? How could they not know? And why would a man even consider making such an assumption, if not to justify religious tradition's of men?

Good point....to add if I may some additional thoughts....

In the 4th commandment God said He hallowed the Sabbath day at Creation.....

Exodus 20:11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.

It is inconceivable to believe that after God created man in His image Genesis 1:26 that Adam and Eve right after they were created, did not also hallow the Sabbath day with God that Jesus said was made for man Mark 2:27 and the day to honor Him on His holy day. Isaiah 58:13

Almost every major point God made about His holy Sabbath day from the beginning to the end was either personally written by God or personally spoken by God or Jesus or the example of Jesus personally honoring. Some don't think this is a big deal for some reason, but as Jesus said...

Matthew 4:4 But He answered and said, “It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.’ ”


Exodus 20"8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. 9 Six days you shall labor and do all your work, 10 but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord your God. In it you shall do no work: you, nor your son, nor your daughter, nor your male servant, nor your female servant, nor your cattle, nor your stranger who is within your gates. 11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.

Exodus 31:16 “Speak also to the children of Israel, saying: ‘Surely My Sabbaths you shall keep, for it is a sign between Me and you throughout your generations, that you may know that I am the Lord who sanctifies you.

Lev 19:30
‘You shall keep My Sabbaths and reverence My sanctuary: I am the Lord.

Isaiah 56:4 For thus says the Lord:
“To the eunuchs who keep My Sabbaths,
And choose what pleases Me,
And hold fast My covenant,

5 Even to them I will give in My house
And within My walls a place and a name
Better than that of sons and daughters;
I will give them an everlasting name
That shall not be cut off.
6 “Also the sons of the foreigner
Who join themselves to the Lord, to serve Him,

And to love the name of the Lord, to be His servants—
Everyone who keeps from defiling the Sabbath,
And holds fast My covenant—



Isaiah 58:13 “If you turn away your foot from the Sabbath,
From doing your pleasure on My holy day,
And call the Sabbath a delight,
The holy day of the Lord honorable,
And shall honor Him, not doing your own ways,
Nor finding your own pleasure,
Nor speaking your own words,
14 Then you shall delight yourself in the Lord;
And I will cause you to ride on the high hills of the earth,
And feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father.
The mouth of the Lord has spoken.”

Isaiah 66:23 And it shall come to pass That from one New Moon to another, And from one Sabbath to another, All flesh shall come to worship before Me, says the Lord.

We should believe Jesus when He said the Sabbath was made for man, which means mankind Mark 2:27 that He is Lord of the Sabbath Mark 2:28 that He hallowed at Creation Exodus 20:11 because God is the Creator of all things and we honor Him when we keep His commandments, which includes the Sabbath commandment that He personally wrote and He personally spoke.

We are warned those against the Most High would think to change times and laws Dan 7:25 and the only law that is both a time and a law is the seventh day Sabbath commandment and history clearly shows when it was changed, not by God. We are also warned the devil deceives the whole world Rev 12:9, our only counter to this is place our trust in God because He is the standard of righteousness, which is reflected in His holy commandments Psalms 119:172 only He can sanctify. Eze 20:12 He sanctified the seventh day as the day to honor Him which shows we obey the One true God from Creation Exodus 20:11 to judgement Revelation 14:7
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Studyman

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"Among you" is quite clear - it was about strangers living in Israel. If I moved to the USA, I would be under the US laws as any American, while being there, though I was born elsewhere.
Yes, that is the concept. Jew and Gentile, "turn to God", at least this is the teaching of the Christ Inspired Words of the Bible.

Eph. 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

Acts 26:19 Whereupon, O king Agrippa, I was not disobedient unto the heavenly vision:20 But shewed first unto them of Damascus, and at Jerusalem, and throughout all the coasts of Judaea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent and "turn to God", (Of the Bible) and do works meet for repentance.

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go. 18 O that thou hadst hearkened to my commandments! then had thy peace been as a river, and thy righteousness as the waves of the sea:

I keep asking you and you keep ignoring, but I'll ask again. Is this the Christ you promote, or do you serve another?


Such concepts are so easily understood that I wonder why you struggle with them.

The concept of "Seek ye first the Kingdom of God and His Righteousness", spoken by the Christ of the Bible, is not hard for me to comprehend. What is hard to comprehend is how you can profess to know God, even preach in His Name, but you don't understand that men, Jew and Gentile, are to "repent" and "turn to Him".

Biblical terms are "the Law" or "the law of Moses" and similar. For example, there is nothing sacrificial about stoning adulterers to death. But its discontinued, anyway - as a part of the Law that was discontinued as a whole, after fulfilling its purpose.

And yet, Paul teaches men are "Dead in their Trespasses and Sins" before repentance. How were they killed? He said "The Law came and I died". How did the Law Come? Was it not shown to him by the Congregation of the Lord? Abraham, Moses, Joshua, Isaiah etc.?

Did the Congregation of the Lord not Spiritually stone him for his sins?

Do the Inspired Words of the Christ of the Bible carry any influence with you at all?

"Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel?"

"I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish."

Is this not for both Jew and Gentile in your religion?
Only some things from the Law still apply, being universal, moral and repeated to Christians. And also new ones were given to Christians, unknown to Jews before.

You have your adopted religion, and it might be popular in some circles of this world. But what I advocate for is turning to the Christ "of the Bible". There is no other way for Salvation, at least according to Him.

And HE didn't withhold His Truth to those who were faithful to Him, not in Abraham's Time, not in Moses Time, and not now. At least this is true regarding the Christ of the Bible.
 
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GDL

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In the text by the disjunctive particle "or".
"or" can be disjunctive or comparable:

[BDAG] ἤ
• ἤ particle (Hom.+).
1. marker of an alternative, or, disjunctive particle (B-D-F §446; Rob. 1188f)
a. separating
α. opposites, which are mutually exclusive
β. related and similar terms, where one can take the place of the other or one supplements the other.

There is also a textual variant here: The manuscript evidence is mixed between "or" & "kai-and".

Here's a note from the NET Bible translators:

NET Notes (Act 10:14)

38 tn Possibly there is a subtle distinction in meaning between κοινός (koinos) and ἀκάθαρτος (akathartos) here, but according to L&N 53.39 it is difficult to determine precise differences in meaning based on existing contexts.
sn Peter insisted he would not violate the law by eating anything defiled and ritually unclean. These food laws were one of the practices that distinguished Jews from their Gentile neighbors. The practice made table fellowship with Gentiles awkward. For an example of Jewish attitudes to this, see Dan 1:8–16; 1 Macc 1:41–64; Letter of Aristeas 142; Tacitus, History 5.5.

I'm in agreement with this and adding the other factors above, disagree that "or" - if the correct wording even is "or" & not "and" - is strictly separating. I also think the logic I laid out is something that should be addressed and not passed over. I don't see how the strict disjunctive works with the logic or the context.
In the vision Peter only seen two kinds, common and unclean; though there were all manner of four footed beasts. They were not to eat anything that touch something that was unclean. If something did it was ceremonial defiled, common.

Acts 10:12 Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
Acts 10:13 And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
Acts 10:14 But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
Acts 10:15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
Acts 10:16 This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.

Lev 7:21 Moreover the soul that shall touch any unclean thing, as the uncleanness of man, or any unclean beast, or any abominable unclean thing, and eat of the flesh of the sacrifice of peace offerings, which pertain unto the LORD, even that soul shall be cut off from his people.
Again, what about the logic I laid out? Is Peter supposed to be watching out for unclean men and bypass them because God did not cleanse them?

YLT (since you use this translation) Acts 10:28 And he said unto them, 'Ye know how it is unlawful forbidden/not allowed for a man, a Jew, to keep company with, or to come unto, one of another race, but to me God did shew to call no man common or unclean;
  • Peter's conclusion was that God was cleansing the common & the unclean, not just the common.
See below re: Lev.
God said call not what he had cleansed common. Never mentioning the unclean being cleansed only that which was defiled by that which is unclean.
Doesn't fit the logic or the range of the language.

Why did you not address or correct the rest of the logic I presented?

If something touched an unclean thing, then it became unclean, not common. As I said, this word kainos is not even used in the LXX.

NKJ Leviticus 5:1 `If a person sins in hearing the utterance of an oath, and is a witness, whether he has seen or known of the matter-- if he does not tell it, he bears guilt. 2 `Or if a person touches any unclean thing, whether it is the carcass of an unclean beast, or the carcass of unclean livestock, or the carcass of unclean creeping things, and he is unaware of it, he also shall be unclean and guilty. 3 `Or if he touches human uncleanness-- whatever uncleanness with which a man may be miano-defiled, and he is unaware of it-- when he realizes it, then he shall be guilty. 4 `Or if a person swears, speaking thoughtlessly with his lips to do evil or to do good, whatever it is that a man may pronounce by an oath, and he is unaware of it-- when he realizes it, then he shall be guilty in any of these matters. 5 `And it shall be, when he is guilty in any of these matters, that he shall confess that he has sinned in that thing; 6 `and he shall bring his trespass offering to the LORD for his sin which he has committed, a female from the flock, a lamb or a kid of the goats as a sin offering. So the priest shall make atonement for him concerning his sin. (Lev. 5:6 NKJ)

Apparently, God was also in the business of forgiving uncleanness.
The word for unclean is not in those text.
Agreed. Yet if we don't set ourselves on the disjunctive in Acts10, then common and unclean become closely related. And the in-context relationship between kainos-common in Rom14:14 to the clear statement in Rom14:20 in the continuing context of foods that "all things [are] katharos-clean" seems to wrap this up nicely.

You seem to have set aside the reference I made to kainos in Heb9, which I see is vital to this entire discussion. This is, for lack of clearer wording, spiritual now and the old order which was a parable for the new order in Christ is a bygone era.

I noted before how "unclean" is such a big concept in the old era and much of this was having to do with physical things. Now "unclean" is mostly stated re: spirits - unclean spirits - and sinfulness.

Now statements about not touching unclean things such as that in Isaiah52:11 are being connected with idolatry and not being yoked together with unbelievers 2Cor6:17. And in Eph5:3-5 unclean(ness) is correlated to being sinful & idolatrous. This really is not about food anymore.

You previously directed me to do a study of common and unclean. I went back and dug up my old work and reviewed and even added to some of it. Why don't you reciprocate and just look at "unclean(ness)" in the NC and see if it ever refers to food making us unclean. The word is referring to spiritual matters now - unbelievers and sin.
No not like you appear to be implying. What is the NC? How does Deut 30;10-14 and Romans 10:6-8 compare to Heb. 8:10.
Would you please take the time and explain yourself. The issue as I see it is faith-righteousness - faith in Jesus Christ - Christ.
Awesome! Hence why God said not to eat.
Fine and agreed to a point. But the KOG is not eating and drinking. If anything, now, food is a be careful what you eat, or you'll get sick matter - immediately or over time - and you may even die immediately. And in this way, it can, and IMO should be a matter of faith - I believe God the Creator has His Creation structured in a certain way and that man is not as smart as he thinks he is. So, I'll trust God to guide me. The same thing goes for Creation itself. I know and believe God is the Creator. I don't need to be taught this as the children of Israel apparently needed to have it ingrained into them in such a way that they were forced under penalty of death to rest & contemplate it every 7th day and to do so as a sign of their covenant with God. I think He knows that we in Christ get this or should get this by now.

I'm not seeing anything that says we need to revert to childhood practices to please Him or be in His Kingdom. This is one of those many tensions in Scripture. God wants adult sons who have put away childish things but seemingly retain in a sense a childlike faith. I trust Him completely and know that He will always and forever know more than I no matter my stage of development as His son and brother of His first-born Son - our Lord.

I have a question for you if you'd be so kind to answer: Are you or do you congregate with SDA or Messianics?
 
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GDL

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trophy33

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Yes, that is the concept. Jew and Gentile, "turn to God", at least this is the teaching of the Christ Inspired Words of the Bible.

Eph. 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; 2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

Acts 26:19 Whereupon, O king Agrippa, I was not disobedient unto the heavenly vision:20 But shewed first unto them of Damascus, and at Jerusalem, and throughout all the coasts of Judaea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent and "turn to God", (Of the Bible) and do works meet for repentance.

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go. 18 O that thou hadst hearkened to my commandments! then had thy peace been as a river, and thy righteousness as the waves of the sea:

I keep asking you and you keep ignoring, but I'll ask again. Is this the Christ you promote, or do you serve another?




The concept of "Seek ye first the Kingdom of God and His Righteousness", spoken by the Christ of the Bible, is not hard for me to comprehend. What is hard to comprehend is how you can profess to know God, even preach in His Name, but you don't understand that men, Jew and Gentile, are to "repent" and "turn to Him".



And yet, Paul teaches men are "Dead in their Trespasses and Sins" before repentance. How were they killed? He said "The Law came and I died". How did the Law Come? Was it not shown to him by the Congregation of the Lord? Abraham, Moses, Joshua, Isaiah etc.?

Did the Congregation of the Lord not Spiritually stone him for his sins?

Do the Inspired Words of the Christ of the Bible carry any influence with you at all?

"Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel?"

"I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish."

Is this not for both Jew and Gentile in your religion?


You have your adopted religion, and it might be popular in some circles of this world. But what I advocate for is turning to the Christ "of the Bible". There is no other way for Salvation, at least according to Him.

And HE didn't withhold His Truth to those who were faithful to Him, not in Abraham's Time, not in Moses Time, and not now. At least this is true regarding the Christ of the Bible.
I do not see anything related to my points in your post. Also, your style of connecting thoughts together, colorization of words etc. seem illogical/nonsensical to me.

So I will let you with your opinions.
 
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trophy33

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I am not interested in going down any rabbit hole with you and We have nothing in common presently.

The text says
Is for sinners and for sound doctrine. Present tense not past. The law is to be used lawfully If we are sinning or want sound doctrine. Paul was speaking to Timothy instructing him for the church. Saying it is not doesn't change what God said through Paul to the church through Timothy.

1Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

And it is not one verse it is several. As the following verse showed you.
This topic is pointless. We both know that Christians do not follow the Law, but you will stress one word that was added in English translation over clear fundamental teachings, just to hypothetically prove something.

This is really a very bad way of how to come to a sound doctrine. Or a desperate attempt to defend a bad doctrine.
 
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GDL

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This topic is pointless. We both know that Christians do not follow the Law, but you will stress one word that was added in English translation over clear fundamental teachings, just to hypothetically prove something.

This is really a very bad way of how to come to a sound doctrine. Or a desperate attempt to defend a bad doctrine.
FWIW, I am instructed by, and I do follow God's Law in Christ in Spirit. I know His Law is now summarized by Love God, Love Neighbor, and Love one another as Christ Loved us. The summarization of Love Neighbor is based upon God's Commandments that pertain to how we think about and treat one another. The Love God matter ends up being related to our personal character being like that of our Heavenly Father and our Lord Jesus and treating others as He would have us treat them. The Love one another command is based in knowing all sins and being able to help one another as Christian siblings out of sin which we learn about from God's Law.

IMO, the issue is what commandments are now in the Law of Christ - exactly what is being put in our minds and being written on our hearts - to shape who we are in Christ as Children of God - to give us the wisdom that is so prevalent in God Law - God's Word - to perfect our consciences as could not be done in the old era under Mosaic Law.

Apologies for butting in.
 
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trophy33

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FWIW, I am instructed by, and I do follow God's Law in Christ in Spirit. I know His Law is now summarized by Love God, Love Neighbor, and Love one another as Christ Loved us. The summarization of Love Neighbor is based upon God's Commandments that pertain to how we think about and treat one another. The Love God matter ends up being related to our personal character being like that of our Heavenly Father and our Lord Jesus and treating others as He would have us treat them. The Love one another command is based in knowing all sins and being able to help one another as Christian siblings out of sin which we learn about from God's Law.

IMO, the issue is what commandments are now in the Law of Christ - exactly what is being put in our minds and being written on our hearts - to shape who we are in Christ as Children of God - to give us the wisdom that is so prevalent in God Law - God's Word - to perfect our consciences as could not be done in the old era under Mosaic Law.

Apologies for butting in.
Sure, I meant the Old Testament - the Mosaic Law as a whole legal system, given to ancient Israel.
 
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pasifika

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Is for sinners and for sound doctrine. Present tense not past. Paul was speaking to Timothy instructing him for the church. Saying it is not doesn't change what God said through Paul to the church through Timothy.

1Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
Hi @HIM, yes the law is NOT made for a righteous man, because righteous man will live by Faith.

Law is not based on Faith, (based on works -"self work")
 
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BobRyan

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We both agree the Law is not for us, as a whole and in its literal meaning.
"Sin is transgression of the LAW" 1 John 3:4
"what matters is KEEPING the Commandments of God" 1 Cor 7:19
"our faith ESTABLISHES the LAW" Rom 3:31
"The LAW is written on heart and mind" under the NEW Covenant Heb 8:6-12

Your "agreement" to set it aside -- noted.

I choose the Bible.
 
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BobRyan

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Hi @HIM, yes the law is NOT made for a righteous man, because righteous man will live by Faith.

Law is not based on Faith, (based on works -"self work")
"it is not the hearers of the LAW that are just before God -- but the DOERS of the LAW will be JUSTIFIED ... on the day when according to my GOSPEL God will judges mankind through Christ Jesus" Rom 2:13-16
 
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BobRyan

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Sure, I meant the Old Testament - the Mosaic Law as a whole legal system, given to ancient Israel.
Jesus was preaching from "All of scripture" according to Luke in Luke 24.
 
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BobRyan

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I don't think he wasn't full agreement with their tradition. He agreed with them on some things, disagreed on others.

Here, for example, he is agreeing with them on loving your neighbor, but disagreeing on hate your enemy.
Love your neighbor as yourself Lev 19:18 was not a Jewish tradition - rather it was scripture.
 
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BobRyan

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Which is easier to spot - to tie together when reading?

KJV 1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
  • KJV Matthew 7:23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
OR:

NKJ 1 John 3:4 Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.
  • NKJ Matthew 7:23 "And then I will declare to them,`I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!'
That's the simple one.
My point is that you don't find many people supposing that "transgression of the Law" is not "lawlessness".

But the phrase "transgression of the Law" brings in the concept of God's Law in a much more direct way - as center focus on what is going on. It makes the Law the mechanism that defines what sin (rebellion, lawlessness) is.

The same point as is made in Rom 3:

Same as we see in Rom 3:19-20
19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law none of mankind will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes knowledge of sin.

The same point that is made in Romans 7.


You said "The same book says "this IS the LOVE of God - that we KEEP His Commandments"' What does "of" mean here? Could it be translated more precisely?
It makes it clear that God's Commandments are "in context" for what John considers to be the LAW in 1 John 3:4.
 
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pasifika

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"it is not the hearers of the LAW that are just before God -- but the DOERS of the LAW will be JUSTIFIED ... on the day when according to my GOSPEL God will judges mankind through Christ Jesus" Rom 2:13-16
Hi, yes i agree the doer of the law will be Justified. But which law? The law that requires FAITH or Law that requires works? Romans 3:27.

I believe you referring to the law that requires works (OC), in that case "no one will be justified" Romans 3:20, Galatians 2:16
 
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BobRyan

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Another question: Did you respond to this post to you? It would be interesting to continue to pursue the days, months, seasons, years issue.

Gal 4 is very specifically addressing former pagans "returning again" to their pagan practices. Even one observance of those pagan days is condemned in Gal 4.

But in Rom 14 observance of any and all Bible-approved holy days is defended.

That makes a good contrast.
 
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