If you come to understand that no man apart from the Christ was ever able to be foundationally justified by doing law even by faith, maybe you'll then come to understand why Zacharias needed Christ like all men do.
I'm quite sure you cannot find anywhere in my posts where I ever suggest, or even imply that righteousness comes apart from Christ?
There is no foundational righteousness or justification apart from Christ no matter how well one was keeping law.
Again, you are making assumptions about my understanding that cannot be supported by my actual words.
Zacharias knew he needed to be saved by faith in the coming Redeemer because he knew he couldn't be redeemed and saved by keeping law - he knew that no man could.
Neither I, nor the Scriptures I posted, are saying that Zacharias was "Saved" by keeping the Law. My posts and analogies make this very clear. I'm not sure why you would imply such things about me.
He needed a release from imprisonment from sin and death that he could not accomplish no matter how well he lived according to law. His righteous and blameless status under the Old Covenant was not sufficient to accomplish what he and we all needed.
IMO, your definition of the Old Covenant doesn't seem to align with the Words of the God who defined it. But in the analogy that I gave you, in response to the question you asked me, I said nothing Zacharias could do could remove his sins, his Pardon can only come from a
High Power than he. And that Power, as I also told you, was Christ, the Christ of the Bible IMO. Not sure where these implications are coming from, but I know it isn't from my actual posts.
This is not all about a corrupt priesthood. And the law could not foundationally justify a man
When you understand what works of law means - that it is not speaking specifically about the sacrificial works of a corrupted priesthood - but about what the law/commandments were actually doing under the OC and why it was added for transgressions, maybe then you'll begin to come to see what your errors from a practice that avoids Scripture in context have made up.
Only by believing the falsehood that the Pharisees were "living by the Law and Moses" can a man justify this religious philosophy you are promoting. And rejecting the Truth about Zacharias, who lived in the same town, was surrounded by the same religion, and didn't rebel against his God as the Pharisees were but was already following Paul's instruction to the Body of Christ in his time, to "Yield themselves" servants to Obey God, before the Christ was even born.
I don't think you can identify even ONE scripture that I have avoided speaking about. While it seems that you have not addressed several. Not sure why, if we are seeking truth of the Scriptures, that we can't discuss them all.
You might want to pick up context for Rom6:16-18 by reading at minimum the first 15 verses of the chapter. "Context" is an important word for students of a Text.
Rom. 6:
1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
Yes, context is important. I know for some reason you don't like answering my questions. But it is how I discuss Scriptures in search of Biblical Truth. So I'll ask you anyway, since my motive is seeking the Truth of God. Wasn't Zacharias' Sins forgiven by the Same Christ who forgave Paul's sin, and by the Same Grace of God? Didn't Zacharias know of the Mercy and Grace responsible for his pardon? Isn't that the message of his son, John the Baptist?
"
To give knowledge of salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins, Through the tender mercy of our God; whereby the dayspring from on high hath visited us,"
So, in the Church of God that both Paul and Zacharias partook of,
Shall they continue in sin, that grace/mercy may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall they, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
Did the Same Christ, not teach the same "good news" in the Gospel of Christ where these Word's of the same Christ are found?
Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel?
Where is Paul teaching a different Gospel of Christ, than the Christ Himself taught in the Law and Prophets?
And how can a man "Not continue in Sin", unless he repents and "Yields himself" a servant to obey God, as both Paul and Zacharias and Simeon, and Caleb, and Joshua, and Daniel, and Meshak, and all the examples of faith in the entire Bible did?
I think these are relevant questions given the Jesus of the Bible did say to "Go and Sin no more".
Oddly, it seems your misunderstanding of law and foundations looks like it may have eventuated in what might be a healthy respect for obedience to God. As long as you understand Christ - who and what He is and what He did for us (including for Zach.) that we could not do for ourselves - and since you know that faith in God and obedience to God are virtually synonymous - then you may actually be on the path of the Scripture you reference. I'm concerned more about those who think Christ terminated the law. I'm also growing more concerned for some who misplace the importance and ability of Law apart from Grace.
I think what was missing in the Jews religion, is the same thing that is missing in many modern religions "who come in Christ's Name". And that is the purpose of Grace to begin with. Whether it was the Grace of God given men though the Sacrifices of the Levitical Priesthood offered to God by Priests on men's behalf, or the Grace of God given men through the Sacrifice of the Priest of God, the Christ Himself, offered to God on men's behalf, the reason wasn't for men to continue to reject God's "instruction in righteousness" or to "continue in sin".
And yet here you and I are, placed by God in a world in which the mainstream religions who professes to know God, rebels against His Commandments, despises His Judgments, have created their own Sabbaths and High days while rejecting the Feasts of the Lord. They have created huge religious businesses and have amassed untold wealth off of God's own Word, who became Flesh and dwelled among us.
And they claim justification for these Deeds, by the Sacrificial "Works" of the Priesthood "After the order of Melchizedek", in the same way the Pharisees, who did the same things, believed they were justified by the sacrificial "works" of the Priesthood, "After the Order of Aaron".
How is either religion, exhibiting the Faith of Jesus?