DavidPT
Well-Known Member
- Sep 26, 2016
- 8,609
- 2,107
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Married
So in the original Revelation of John, when the beast makes war against the saints and overcomes them, there's no fire coming down and devouring them mentioned. Instead, we read that Christ will come with His armies following Him, and defeat the beast and false prophet, casting them into the lake of fire.
Amillennialism inserts the binding of Satan somewhere between Revelation 12:9 and Revelation 12:17. but it's no so clear exactly where it's inserted. I think that different Amillennialists have different views on exactly where and when it happened and where it should be inserted into the text.
One thing that seems obvious to me, satan can't be bound in the pit prior to the war in heaven since he still has access to heaven in some sense until he is cast unto the earth. Which means his binding can't happen until he is cast unto the earth first. But notice what he does once he sees he has been cast unto the earth. he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child. I don't see that fitting with anything involving what Revelation 20:1-3 records. Of course though, one might argue that the text indicates he is bound so that he can no longer deceive the nations, and not bound so that he can no longer persecute anyone. But even so, I still don't see any place in Revelation 12 that can fit what Revelation 20:1-3 is depicting. The contexts aren't even remotely the same. And the funny thing about it, Revelation 12 spans 2000 years or more, the same 2000 years Amils insist are the thousand years. Where then does Revelation 20:1-3 fit anywhere within Revelation 12? IOW, where is the starting point of his binding and where is end of his binding found within Revelation 12?
Upvote
0