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A Question for Trinitarians

Clare73

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Regarding the Word of God, God's Son, in contrast to the utterance of God. My understating is just what the Scriptures teach us, that God's Word is God's Son - the only-begotten Son of God (John 1:18; John 8:42). Until you brought this issue up, I had never considered the idea that the Logos, who came out from God, is God's utterance.
Which is not to say that someone else, for the sake of their denial of the divinity of the Son, would not do so.
Regarding Greek Philosophy:
I can see why you think John used the word "Logos," which I understand from you, is because John was trying to show the Greeks who the Logos is. However, as a Christian who believes in the inspiration of Scripture, I choose to explain who the Logos is by those Scriptures.
However, the meaning and correct understanding of Scripture, and any writing, is what the writer meant in them, not what the reader thinks.
This talk about Greek philosophy regarding the Logos appears to me to be muddying the waters, because it really does not matter what they believed, as if that carried any weight on the issue of who the Logos is.
It matters to what the writer meant, and to its import, whether logos means spoken word or not.
If it does mean spoken word, it introduces the notion that the Son was spoken into being, an act of creation like matter, making the Son a creature, and not God.
Logos meaning the "spoken word" is a notion ripe for abuse by Trinity deniers, such as the poster Nux, and so must be guarded against.
Regarding your statement that:
Clare73 said: "The gospel of John was written about 20 years before Revelation..
So, the "Word of God" in Revelation would have been understood as "the Word" who is God in Jn 1:1, the Son of God.
"
I agree that John's use of "Logos" in Revelation 19:13 would have been remembered, perhaps understood, from John 1:1. Even so, what purpose does this knowledge serve? What it tells me is that The Word in John 1:1 is further explained as "The Word of God" in Revelation 19:13. And that is the point I made, that the Word belongs to God - God's Word or God's Son. But I never insinuated or stated that the Word of God, when referring to the Son, is an utterance of God.
Again, it's about the false notion, not about you.
Whether "The Word of God" is only used once, or 1000 times, makes no difference, the same truth prevails.

Whether "The Word" is only used by John, or whether the Greeks used it, has no bearing on the issue.

These kinds of statements just muddy the water.
What muddies the water is what Trinity deniers try to do with such statements as "Word of God," if it is not clearly delineated not to mean the spoken word.
You ask the following question:
Clare73 said: "Where do we find God referred to as "the Word" in the OT?"

"John 1:1-3" appears to me to be an account that takes us back to "Genesis 1," where, in the beginning, when God was doing His creative works. The wording starts off the same, and explains to us the role or function of "The Word" in creation.
Keeping in mind, the word in the creation account is the word of God spoken (Ge 1:3, 6, 9, 11, 14, 20, 24) not the word of God generated.
The Word of God generated (the Son) spoke creation into being.
In "Psalms 33:6-9," we also gain understanding of how God created and sustains all things, which is by His Word and Spirit:

Psalms 33:6, 9 (WEB) By Yahweh’s Word, the heavens were made: all their army by the Spirit of his mouth… 9 For he spoke, and it was done. He commanded, and it stood firm.

Perhaps the Apostle John, by inspiration, was also reminded of “Proverbs 8:22-31,” where “Wisdom” personified is the Logos of God.
Psalms and Proverbs were not written in Greek, did not use logos, and have no bearing on the meaning of logos.

I do understand your thoughtful points. However, they do not address an important issue as it relates to the Trinity, and its deniers, and which is the basis for my statements; i.e., preservation of the "Word of God" as begotten, not as spoken.
 
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setst777

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Which is not to say that someone else, for the sake of their denial of the divinity of the Son, would not do so.

Your continual warning about 'the utterance of God' is perplexing:

Firstly, because no one on this board expressed any disagreement, or even suggested that this was the case.

Secondly, you wrote specifically to me, makes it appear as if you are trying to refute what you supposed to be my belief that "The Word" is the utterance of God, but I never expressed such a belief, and even kept denying that this was my belief each time you brought it up

However, the meaning and correct understanding of Scripture, and any writing, is what the writer meant in them, not what the reader thinks.

You don't know what John actually meant, just as you did not know what I meant when I referred to Lord Jesus as "The Word of God." You are supposing your own beliefs about what you think others are thinking. If John does not actually state that he is explaining Greek philosophy, we should not make such conclusions. Rather, we should accept that John was inspired by the Spirit of Christ to explain the mystery of the OT Scriptures regarding Lord Jesus and the Gospel.

Since God taught John by Revelation, that Jesus is "The Word of God" that should give you a clue that John was not referring to Greek philosophy when describing Lord Jesus as "The Word" in John 1:1-14; rather, the same God who revealed to him that Jesus is "The Word of God" in Revelation 19:13 is the same God who inspired John to write John 1:1-14.

Unless otherwise stated by the Apostle, the instruction they give is to explain the mystery within the OT about Lord Jesus and the Gospel.

Romans 16:25-27
(NIV) 25 Now to him who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel, the message I proclaim about Jesus Christ, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, 26 but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith— 27 to the only wise God be glory forever through Jesus Christ! Amen.

Ephesians 3:4-6 (NIV) 4 In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, 5 which was not made known to people in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets. 6 This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus.

Colossians 1:25-27 (NIV) 25 I have become its servant by the commission God gave me to present to you [in what he is now writing to them about in this Epistle] the word of God in its fullness— 26 the mystery that has been kept hidden for ages and generations, but is now disclosed to the Lord’s people. 27 To them God has chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory.

Colossians 2:1-4 (NIV) 2 My goal is that they may be encouraged in heart and united in love, so that they may have the full riches of complete understanding, in order that they may know the mystery of God, namely, Christ, 3 in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge. 4 I tell you this so that no one may deceive you by fine-sounding arguments.

Ephesians 3:8-11 (NIV) 8 Although I am less than the least of all the Lord’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the boundless riches of Christ, 9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things. 10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God [which is the Gospel Revelation that God commanded to be put into writing: Romans 16:25-27] should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms, 11 according to his eternal purpose that he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.

1 Peter 1:10-16 (NIV) 10 Concerning this salvation, the prophets, who spoke of the grace that was to come to you, searched intently and with the greatest care, 11 trying to find out the time and circumstances to which the Spirit of Christ in them was pointing when he predicted the sufferings of the Messiah and the glories that would follow. 12 It was revealed to them that they were not serving themselves but you, when they spoke of the things that have now been told you by those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven. Even angels long to look into these things.

2 Corinthians 1:13 (NIV) 13 For we do not write you anything you cannot read or understand.

1 Corinthians 4:6 (NIV) 4 … “Do not go beyond what is written.”

It matters to what the writer meant, and to its import, whether logos means spoken word or not.
If it does mean spoken word, it introduces the notion that the Son was spoken into being, an act of creation like matter, making the Son a creature, and not God.
Logos meaning the "spoken word" is a notion ripe for abuse by Trinity deniers, such as the poster Nux, and so must be guarded against.

Again, it's about the false notion, not about you.

Did "Nux" say that Jesus (The Word) is the spoken word of God?

What muddies the water is what Trinity deniers try to do with such statements as "Word of God," if it is not clearly delineated not to mean the spoken word.

You are harping on a point that no one disagreed with on this board discussion. Naturally, I was perplexed as to why you kept repeating the same issue, when no one disagreed.
  • When you use Greek philosophy to explain "The Word" you are muddying the waters.
  • When you say that John is the only one who described Lord Jesus as "The Word" you are muddying the waters.
  • When you say that "The Word of God" is only used once in Scripture, you are muddying the waters.
Since God taught John by Revelation, that Jesus is "The Word of God" that should give you a clue that John was not referring to Greek philosophy when describing Lord Jesus as "The Word" in John 1:1-14.

Keeping in mind, the word in the creation account is the word of God spoken (Ge 1:3, 6, 9, 11, 14, 20, 24) not the word of God generated.
The Word of God generated (the Son) spoke creation into being.

True, however, John, through the inspiration of the Spirit, provided us with an understanding of the Word's person-hood and function in creation - a mystery that was not made known previously. Consequently, the OT surely does give us clues into this mystery of God being as a multi-personal being. For instance, see: Genesis 1:26-27; Genesis 3:22-23; Genesis 11:7-9; Genesis 19:24; Amos 4:11; Zechariah 2:8-11; Zechariah 6:9-15; Proverbs 8:22-31.

The Apostle John, being a Jewish convert to Christianity by Lord Jesus, and inspired by God to remind him of the OT Scriptures regarding himself, would have inspired knowledge about God as a multi-personal being, with Jesus, being that Word of God existing with God in the beginning, through whom God created all things. God taught John these things from the OT Scriptures.

Even the word "God," when referring to Jehovah, is frequently written in the plural form, which could likely indicate that God is one being, but multi-personal, since that is what the NT explains to us, and of which the OT alludes to in many Scriptures - that God is a plural being.

Psalms and Proverbs were not written in Greek, did not use logos, and have no bearing on the meaning of logos.

I do understand your thoughtful points. However, they do not address an important issue as it relates to the Trinity, and its deniers, and which is the basis for my statements; i.e., preservation of the "Word of God" as begotten, not as spoken.

God's word is equivalent to God's wisdom in Scripture - God's words embody the Wisdom of God to mankind (EI: Deuteronomy 4:5-6; Jeremiah 8:9; Psalms 111:10; 2 Timothy 3:15)

John was a Jewish convert to Lord Jesus for the NT Gospel. What other sources do you think John would use as inspired evidence than the OT Scriptures? If you hadn't noticed, the Four Gospels and the Epistles frequently quote, or refer back to, the OT Scriptures when teaching the mystery of the Gospel and Lord Jesus.

Just because the OT Scriptures were not originally authored in Greek, does not discredit their significance in what John, by inspiration of the Spirit, may have been given greater revelation of, rather than on Greek philosophers.

I, therefore, disagree that Psalms and Proverbs have no bearing on the meaning of Logos. All of God's words are understood to embody the wisdom of God in the OT.

Deuteronomy 4:5-6 (WEB) 5 Behold, I have taught you statutes and ordinances, even as Yahweh my God commanded me, that you should do so in the middle of the land where you go in to possess it. 6 Keep therefore and do them; for this is your wisdom and your understanding in the sight of the peoples who shall hear all these statutes and say, “Surely this great nation is a wise and understanding people.”

Jeremiah 8:9 (WEB) The wise will be put to shame; they will be dismayed and trapped. Since they have rejected the word of the Lord, what kind of wisdom do they have?

Psalms 111:10 (WEB) The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom; all who follow his precepts have good understanding. To him belongs eternal praise.

2 Timothy 3:15 (WEB) 15 and how from infancy you have known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.

Read how Wisdom speaks in Proverbs 1; Proverbs 8:1-9:12. After reading, we see an uncanny similarity between the sayings of personified Wisdom with those of Lord Jesus.
 
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Clare73

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Your continual warning about 'the utterance of God' is perplexing:

Firstly, because no one on this board expressed any disagreement, or even suggested that this was the case.

Secondly, you wrote specifically to me, makes it appear as if you are trying to refute what you supposed to be my belief that "The Word" is the utterance of God, but I never expressed such a belief, and even kept denying that this was my belief each time you brought it up
My response is not a reference to you personally.
 
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What is the name of the "Father," "Son" and "Holy Ghost"?
Jesus.

For the disciples baptized in the name of Jesus.

This is how they understood what Jesus was saying in the great commission in Matthew 28:19. Jesus is the name that represents all three persons of the Godhead. Jesus is the name above all names (Philippians 2:9).

Philippians 2:9

"Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:"​

The fullness of the Godhead dwelt within the man Christ Jesus (See Colossians 2:9). Jesus said He is one with the Father (John 1030) and because the Father did works through Him (John 14:10), and the Holy Spirit was also with Jesus, as well (John 1:32) (Luke 4:1), and He acted in power by the Holy Spirit, too (Matthew 12:28).

Yet, Jesus had power as God Himself, as well.

#1. Jesus said He has power to raise the dead to life just as the Father had power to raise the dead (John 5:21).​
#2. Hebrews 1:3 talks about how Christ held all things together by the word of His power when He purged us of our sins.​
#3. Jesus said, He would raise up this Temple (His body) three days later (John 2:19).​
#4. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6).​
#5 Jesus had the power to take away the sins of the entire world (John 1:29).​
#6. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today.​
#7. Jesus knew men's thoughts (Matthew 9:4) (Matthew 12:25) (Mark 2:8) (Luke 5:22) (Luke 6:8) (Luke 9:47) (Luke 24:38).​
#8. Jesus knew about the lives of others (John 2:24) (John 4:17-18) (John 4:29) (John 6:64).​

I mean, you walk to a room and people have no problem with you talking about God in most cases (unless they are atheists), but the moment you bring up the name of Jesus Christ, people start to feel uncomfortable (Unless they are a Christian). There is power in the name of Jesus.

Jesus is God.
 
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Darren Court

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What is the name of the "Father," "Son" and "Holy Ghost"?
This is a typical assumptive and simplistic question most often born by Arians.

The human assumption here is that everyone has a name and therefore, God must have a name too. The problem is that this assumption is foolish when faced with biblical reality....

i) God is not man and not like a man. Here are 100 verses that says so...https://www.openbible.info/topics/god_is_not_a_man_that_he_should_lie If God isn't like a man why would He need a name like a man

ii) The word "name" in the bible is not as simplistic as they would have us believe. Even in common English parlance it can mean three things..
a) the label by which a thing is known
b) the character of a person (e.g He lives up to His name)​
c) the authority of something (e.g. he acts in the name of King)​
This is also true in the bible. (e.g. "Blessed is He who comes in the NAME of the Lord")

iii) Even the applying the term "name" as a kind of label it still doesn't mean the simplistic, unique name of someone or something. e.g. "Now out of the ground the Lord God had formed every beast of the field and every bird of the heavens and brought them to the man to see what he would call them. And whatever the man called every living creature, that was its NAME." Does anyone seriously think Adam gave every animal a name rather than he named that in types, like dog, cat, cow, pig, etc.

iv) People who passionately want to get into the name of God and the Trinity discussion generally do so to argue that there is a difference between names and titles. Certainly in modern times that is absolutely true, but this reality is not seen or rather is not evidenced in the same way in the bible and it means applying modern logic to apply. That's a problem because it means for thousands of years, nobody saw the difference between names and titles, and if they were wrong, God didn't bother to correct any of them, including Jesus.

v) Purpose of a name. The only reason anything has a name is to distinguish from others things. The problem is that since there is ONLY one God, there is no purpose in differentiating from other gods. "Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me." There just aren't any other gods. This doesn't mean there aren't things that look like gods to men, that men treat as gods, that you might call fake gods but since there is ONLY ONE TRUE God, when we say God there is no confusion who we mean. In other words, God doesn't need a name. The fact is He doesn't need a name for another reason.... we cannot call Him Lord unless the Holy Spirit reveals it to us "no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.". You can talk about God, Yahweh, Jehovah, Jesus or any name you like, nobody will see the truth of it UNLESS the Holy Spirit reveals it to our hearts - where we don't need a name!

So here's what we know...
i) the Father, Son and Holy Ghost don't need names.
ii) the bible makes no distinctions between names and title
iii) the Father, Son and Holy Ghost not having (known) names doesn't mean they don't have names
iv) one name of the Father is Yahweh, one name of the son is Yeshuah, one name of the Holy Spirit is Pneuma aiōnios

One last interesting point is that Pneuma the Father, Son and Holy Ghost all have the same name... God.
John 17:11 says "..Holy Father, protect them by the power of your name, the name you gave me, so that they may be one as we are one."

The "power of your name"... that must be the Father's name
"The name you gave me"... that must be the name the Father gave to Jesus, that's the same name.
"..as we are one".... One NAME!
 
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Always in His Presence

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What is the name of the "Father," "Son" and "Holy Ghost"?
I have a question for you:

Genesis 1:26 Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness;

Who is God referring to as "US" and "OUR"?
 
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This is a typical assumptive and simplistic question most often born by Arians.

The human assumption here is that everyone has a name and therefore, God must have a name too. The problem is that this assumption is foolish when faced with biblical reality....

i) God is not man and not like a man. Here are 100 verses that says so...https://www.openbible.info/topics/god_is_not_a_man_that_he_should_lie If God isn't like a man why would He need a name like a man

ii) The word "name" in the bible is not as simplistic as they would have us believe. Even in common English parlance it can mean three things..
a) the label by which a thing is known
b) the character of a person (e.g He lives up to His name)​
c) the authority of something (e.g. he acts in the name of King)​
This is also true in the bible. (e.g. "Blessed is He who comes in the NAME of the Lord")

iii) Even the applying the term "name" as a kind of label it still doesn't mean the simplistic, unique name of someone or something. e.g. "Now out of the ground the Lord God had formed every beast of the field and every bird of the heavens and brought them to the man to see what he would call them. And whatever the man called every living creature, that was its NAME." Does anyone seriously think Adam gave every animal a name rather than he named that in types, like dog, cat, cow, pig, etc.

iv) People who passionately want to get into the name of God and the Trinity discussion generally do so to argue that there is a difference between names and titles. Certainly in modern times that is absolutely true, but this reality is not seen or rather is not evidenced in the same way in the bible and it means applying modern logic to apply. That's a problem because it means for thousands of years, nobody saw the difference between names and titles, and if they were wrong, God didn't bother to correct any of them, including Jesus.

v) Purpose of a name. The only reason anything has a name is to distinguish from others things. The problem is that since there is ONLY one God, there is no purpose in differentiating from other gods. "Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me." There just aren't any other gods. This doesn't mean there aren't things that look like gods to men, that men treat as gods, that you might call fake gods but since there is ONLY ONE TRUE God, when we say God there is no confusion who we mean. In other words, God doesn't need a name. The fact is He doesn't need a name for another reason.... we cannot call Him Lord unless the Holy Spirit reveals it to us "no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.". You can talk about God, Yahweh, Jehovah, Jesus or any name you like, nobody will see the truth of it UNLESS the Holy Spirit reveals it to our hearts - where we don't need a name!

So here's what we know...
i) the Father, Son and Holy Ghost don't need names.
ii) the bible makes no distinctions between names and title
iii) the Father, Son and Holy Ghost not having (known) names doesn't mean they don't have names
iv) one name of the Father is Yahweh, one name of the son is Yeshuah, one name of the Holy Spirit is Pneuma aiōnios

One last interesting point is that Pneuma the Father, Son and Holy Ghost all have the same name... God.
John 17:11 says "..Holy Father, protect them by the power of your name, the name you gave me, so that they may be one as we are one."

The "power of your name"... that must be the Father's name
"The name you gave me"... that must be the name the Father gave to Jesus, that's the same name.
"..as we are one".... One NAME!
But God does have names in Scripture, though.
 
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