Kylie
Defeater of Illogic
- Nov 23, 2013
- 15,069
- 5,309
- Country
- Australia
- Gender
- Female
- Faith
- Atheist
- Marital Status
- Married
I asked for a brief overview of Conrad's position on Genesis 1.Sorry. I'm not clear on what you want. You originally asked for a 'brief' summary. I gave you that. And....now I guess you're wanting me to elaborate further on some point? I wasn't attempting to offer evidence by referring to Conrad Hyers, but rather scholarly elucidation about the kind of ancient literature I think Genesis 1, beyond simply citing "genre." I fully realize that elucidation doesn't provide "evidence," which I'm guess is all you're interested in? If that's the case, then I guess you and I will quickly find ourselves running out of things to talk about ...
Your answer was, "Hyers thesis is that Genesis 1 is theological cosmogony rather than cosmology. It's purpose was to serve as a polemic against the polytheistic cosmogonic structures of "creation" that permeate the mythos of the surrounding cultures which existed at the time Genesis 1 was written --like early Babylon, for instance, etc."
This was difficult to understand, since you used plenty of complex words like cosmogony and polemic. There's a bit of writing advice: "Don’t use a big word when a singularly unloquacious & diminutive linguistic expression will satisfactorily accomplish the contemporary need." I would have found it much clearer if you'd said, "It was written as a monotheistic explanation for the creation of the universe rather than the polytheistic explanations most cultures of the time had."
Anyway, I found this answer confusing. First of all, cosmogony (the study of how the universe started) would seem to be a subcategory of cosmology. Secondly, immediately after you said his position was that Genesis 1 was written as a theological account of how the universe started, you said, "Genesis 1 wasn't written to explain 'how' the world was created, especially not in a scientific way." This seemed contradictory to me. The only way I could see to make it work was if he had taken it to be a metaphor, and yet when I sugested that, you said no.
You then claimed it was "Princeton level analysis and attempting to call the literature what it was." But this doesn't clarify what he took it to be at all, it's simply a comment on how good his analysis was. I'm still confused as to what the result of his analysis was. From what you've said (at least, what I've taken from your posts), he doesn't think it was meant literally, yet he doesn't think it was meant metaphorically either. I can't think of any third option, and you haven't provided one. So, as I said, I don't know what his position actually is.
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