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Abolishing the law of commandments

Xeno.of.athens

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Ephesians 2:11-22 mentions that Jesus Christ is our [Christians'] peace and that he brings together Jews and Gentile ... by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances ... and might reconcile us both to God in one body ...

What do you make of that?
 

Xeno.of.athens

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Paul is referring to the Old Law, which many of the rules are repeated and/or expanded upon in the New Testament. The Old Law could not save or justify a person.
I think you are right. The reference is to the law given by God to Moses. Paul has more to say on the topic in some of his other letters. For example,
2 Corinthians 3:4 Such is the confidence that we have through Christ toward God. 5 Not that we are sufficient in ourselves to claim anything as coming from us, but our sufficiency is from God, 6 who has made us competent to be ministers of a new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit. For the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.

7 Now if the ministry of death, carved in letters on stone, came with such glory that the Israelites could not gaze at Moses' face because of its glory, which was being brought to an end, 8 will not the ministry of the Spirit have even more glory? 9 For if there was glory in the ministry of condemnation, the ministry of righteousness must far exceed it in glory. 10 Indeed, in this case, what once had glory has come to have no glory at all, because of the glory that surpasses it. 11 For if what was being brought to an end came with glory, much more will what is permanent have glory.​
 
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Jonaitis

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Ephesians 2:11-22 mentions that Jesus Christ is our [Christians'] peace and that he brings together Jews and Gentile ... by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances ... and might reconcile us both to God in one body ...

What do you make of that?

God has opened the door of salvation to the Gentiles by abolishing the Old Covenant that divided them from the commonwealth of Israel, establishing the Church.
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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God has opened the door of salvation to the Gentiles by abolishing the Old Covenant that divided them from the commonwealth of Israel, establishing the Church.
Agreed. Does that mean that the law in its totality is not applicable to Christians or is there some kind of selectivity implied?
 
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trophy33

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Agreed. Does that mean that the law in its totality is not applicable to Christian or is there some kind of selectivity implied?
In its totality.

In other case we would have never been sure what applies and what not. We are out of it, completely.

I also doubt its even technically possible for a covenant to end just partially. I cannot recall any life situation in which such thing happens.
 
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Clare73

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Ephesians 2:11-22 mentions that Jesus Christ is our [Christians'] peace and that he brings together Jews and Gentile ... by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances ... and might reconcile us both to God in one body ...

What do you make of that?
The Levitical regulations--the wall of separation; i.e., sacrifices, defilements, cleansings, feasts, etc., etc., etc.,--has been abolished on the cross in the death of Christ, reconciling Jew to Gentile in one body, and in that one body reconciling both of them to God (by remission of sin through faith) through the cross.
 
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RileyG

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Ephesians 2:11-22 mentions that Jesus Christ is our [Christians'] peace and that he brings together Jews and Gentile ... by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances ... and might reconcile us both to God in one body ...

What do you make of that?
When we interpret Scriptures for ourselves, it causes much confusion.
 
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RileyG

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The ten commandments are summed up in the two great commandments. Love God above all else and love your neighbor as yourself.
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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When we interpret Scriptures for ourselves, it causes much confusion.
How does your [our] faith tradition interpret that passage? I am asking for the sake of readers of this thread.
 
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RileyG

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How does your faith tradition interpret that passage?
As stated above, I believe he was speaking to Jews and the old Law. The Gentile Christians did not need to receive the old law in its fullness or circumcision to be redeemed by Christ.
 
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Hawkins

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Before John the Baptist, gentiles are thought to be hopeless as they don't know God and had no Law given to them. They need to convert to Judaism and to circumcised in order to be redeemed. However, the proclaiming of Law and Prophets is until John the Baptist. Since then Law (Mosaic covenant) doesn't apply, gentiles no longer need to observe Mosaic Law in order to be redeemed. Both Gentiles and Jews can be saved through Jesus Christ without Law (Mosaic covenant).

In a broader sense, "Law is abolished" is spoken in the perspective that humans don't need to be subject to the Judgment of Law as long as they choose to be under the New Covenant. It is a perspective from the effect of the Final Judgment. Law is not abolished from a lawful/legal point of view, as the same Law still applies to angels as well as those humans who failed what is specified in the covenant they are subject.
 
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Clare73

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The ten commandments are summed up in the two great commandments. Love God above all else and love your neighbor as yourself.
And where love has thereby fulfilled them ". . .and whatever other commandment there may be." (Romans 13:8-10)
 
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Clare73

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Before John the Baptist, gentiles are thought to be hopeless as they don't know God and had no Law given to them.
Does Romans 2 present them as hopeless, in terms of law, when it provides a law by which they will be judged at the final judgment (Romans 2:16); i.e., the law of their conscience (Romans 2:14-15).

They are hopeless in terms of righteousness, and so are the Jews, for both groups disobey the law by which they will be judged (Romans 3:9).
They need to convert to Judaism and to circumcised in order to be redeemed.
However, Judaism did not redeem anyone, only faith in the Promise(d seed, Jesus Christ, Genesis 15:5) redeemed anyone (Genesis 15:6).
However, the proclaiming of Law and Prophets is until John the Baptist. Since then Law (Mosaic covenant) doesn't apply, gentiles no longer need to observe Mosaic Law in order to be redeemed. Both Gentiles and Jews can be saved through Jesus Christ without Law (Mosaic covenant).
Right, for the Mosiac Law never saved them because they could not obey it to God's standard.
The same for the Gentiles who also could not obey the law of their conscience to God's standards (Romans 3:9).
In a broader sense, "Law is abolished" is spoken in the perspective that humans don't need to be subject to the Judgment of Law as long as they choose to be under the New Covenant. It is a perspective from the effect of the Final Judgment. Law is not abolished from a lawful/legal point of view, as the same Law still applies to angels
The angels were tried and judged before the creation of man, and are no longer subject to trial and judgment.
The lawless angels were expelled from heaven as demons in the judgment of that trial.
as well as those humans who failed what is specified in the covenant they are subject.
However, no one is under any covenant other than the new covenant by faith, which is not a covenant of law, but of grace.
 
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Clare73

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Sin is the transgression of the law. The curse was abolished, not the law. If you murder, it is still a sin. That has not changed.
Agreed. . .but what causes one to be condemned is unbelief, because belief in and trust on the person and atoning sacrifice (blood, Romans 3:25) of Jesus Christ for the remission of one's sin and right standing with God's judgment; i.e., "not guilty," declared righteous (justified) with the righteousness of Jesus Christ (Romans 1:17, Romans 3:20-24) is what saves you from that condemnation under which you were born (Romans 5:18).
 
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Xeno.of.athens

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Sin is the transgression of the law. The curse was abolished, not the law. If you murder, it is still a sin. That has not changed.
Interesting, I agree yet want to ask; is it a grave sin to work on the Sabbath, for example the person who gathered sticks for a fire on the Sabbath day in Moses' day was executed for the transgression, is working on a Sabbath as serious as it was when Moses was alive?
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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However, no one is under any covenant other than the new covenant by faith, which is not a covenant of law, but of grace.

If there is no law, then no sin and no need of grace...
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Interesting, I agree yet want to ask; is it a grave sin to work on the Sabbath, for example the person who gathered sticks for a fire on the Sabbath day in Moses' day was executed for the transgression, is working on a Sabbath as serious as it was when Moses was alive?

What is a "grave" sin? Sin is sin. Does it violate to love God and/or your neighbor?
 
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