Before John the Baptist, gentiles are thought to be hopeless as they don't know God and had no Law given to them.
Does
Romans 2 present them as hopeless,
in terms of law, when it provides a law by which they will be judged at the final judgment (
Romans 2:16); i.e., the law of their conscience (
Romans 2:14-15).
They are hopeless
in terms of righteousness, and so are the Jews, for both groups disobey the law by which they will be judged (
Romans 3:9).
They need to convert to Judaism and to circumcised in order to be redeemed.
However, Judaism did not redeem anyone,
only faith in the Promise(d seed, Jesus Christ,
Genesis 15:5)
redeemed anyone (
Genesis 15:6).
However, the proclaiming of Law and Prophets is until John the Baptist. Since then Law (Mosaic covenant) doesn't apply, gentiles no longer need to observe Mosaic Law in order to be redeemed. Both Gentiles and Jews can be saved through Jesus Christ without Law (Mosaic covenant).
Right, for the Mosiac Law never saved them because they could not obey it to God's standard.
The same for the Gentiles who also could not obey the law of their conscience to God's standards (
Romans 3:9).
In a broader sense, "Law is abolished" is spoken in the perspective that humans don't need to be subject to the Judgment of Law as long as they choose to be under the New Covenant. It is a perspective from the effect of the Final Judgment. Law is not abolished from a lawful/legal point of view, as the same Law still applies to angels
The angels were tried and judged before the creation of man, and are no longer subject to trial and judgment.
The lawless angels were expelled from heaven as demons in the judgment of that trial.
as well as those humans who failed what is specified in the covenant they are subject.
However, no one is under any covenant other than the new covenant by faith, which is not a covenant of law, but of grace.