Did Christ at the cross end all the laws?

[Friedrich Rubinstein]

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 2 Timothy 3:16
The whole Bible is the work of God so I don't believe in deleting the sections I don't agree with, especially when we are told in the New Covenant that God writes His laws in our hearts and minds Hebrews 8:10 and there is no Gentile or Jew if in Christ Galatians 3:28-29, Colossians 3:11 and Gentiles are grafted in Romans 11:11-24. I certainly would not want to write myself out of God's Covenant and His promise.

I guess we will have to agree to disagree.

God bless and take care.

Would you please quote where I said that we should delete something?

I certainly would not want to write myself out of God's Covenant

There is a New Covenant, and the 10 commandments are part of the Old Covenant. It's a mystery to me how you can read Romans and still think that we're under the written law of the Old Covenant.

God writes his law on our heart, not the 10 commandments. There is no explicit wording of commands anymore, there is only the guidance of the Holy Spirit which happens in principles.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

Confusing:
Exodus 34:28
So he (Moses) Was there with the Lord forty days and forty nights;

he (Moses)neither ate bread nor drank water.

And He (but now the Lord and not Moses?) wrote on the tablets the words of the covenant, the Ten Commandments.

Yes, exactly. Just like it states. Moses is the the first person in scripture to spend 40 days and 40 nights without food.

Exodus 31:18 And when He had made an end of speaking with him on Mount Sinai, He gave Moses two tablets of the Testimony, tablets of stone, written with the finger of God.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

You are picking the NT-references of the 10 commandments no matter the context and claim that's why they are still intact. That is disingenuous, and I think you're aware of that. The same way you could quote 20 other laws of Moses that are referenced in the NT, even in the very same passages, and say in the same way that we're under all of them.

I don’t think following scripture is being disingenuous and I am happy to have Jesus be my righteous judge on that, like He will for all. Your objections have already been addressed through scripture in this thread .

We will have to agree to disagree. God bless and take care.

 

[expos4ever]

The law of eating unclean foods did not end.

Yes it did, Jesus declared that nothing that goes into a man defiles him. I am quite sure I know what you say in response, and I will be ready to reply

 

[Guojing]

What does scripture say?

Deuteronomy 14:8 Also the swine is unclean for you, because it has cloven hooves, yet does not chew the cud; you shall not eat their flesh or touch their dead carcasses.

Isaiah 66:17 They that sanctify themselves, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, eating swine's flesh, and the abomination, and the mouse, shall be consumed together, saith the Lord.

That don't matter now because in Acts 10, that requirement was abolished by God himself.

Furthermore, Paul taught us in the Body of Christ this 1 Corinthians 8:8

8 But meat commendeth us not to God: for neither, if we eat, are we the better; neither, if we eat not, are we the worse.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

That don't matter now because in Acts 10, that requirement was abolished by God himself.

Furthermore, Paul taught us in the Body of Christ this 1 Corinthians 8:8

8 But meat commendeth us not to God: for neither, if we eat, are we the better; neither, if we eat not, are we the worse.

In Acts 10 the scriptures states it is about a vision, which the vision was explained and has nothing to do with food, but people, Gentiles receiving the gospel and Holy Spirit as shown here:

Did Christ at the Cross end all the laws?

1 Cor 8:8 does not say God makes all foods clean and the Lord already spoke about this in Isaiah 66:17 which is at His Second Coming so thats the final word.

1 Cor 8:8 is referring to foods being offered to idols and not God deeming all foods clean. Foods given to idols were already clean so this is not what is in dispute.

God bless

 

[Guojing]

I went through Acts 10 and scriptures states it is about a vision, which the vision had nothing to do with food, but people, Gentiles receiving the gospel and Holy Spirit as shown here:

Did Christ at the Cross end all the laws?

1 Cor 8:8 does not say God makes all foods clean and the Lord already spoke about this in Isaiah 66:17 which is at His Second Coming so thats the final word.

1 Cor 8:8 is referring to foods being offered to idols and not God deeming all foods clean. Foods given to idols were already clean so this is not what is in dispute.

God bless

Acts 10:15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.

How do you understand this new instruction from God to Peter?

 

[SabbathBlessings]

Acts 10:15 And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.

How do you understand this new instruction from God to Peter?

Because the vision is explained and its not about food but about Gentiles. I outlined it previously, but you can believe what you want. Isaiah 66:17 says something quite opposite. . .

 

[expos4ever]

He most certainly tells those who are under the Mosaic law that it must be followed perfectly with no pause or change.

Where does He tell the Jew this, please?

 

[atpollard]

The Law did not end, but the power of the law over us (the redeemed) ended. The Law never brought life, rather the law brings death because it condemns us for our inability to be holy as God is holy. Through Christ, we are dead to the law and alive to grace.

Romans 7

4 Therefore, my brothers and sisters, you also were put to death in regard to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might belong to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God. 5 For while we were in the flesh, the sinful passions, which were brought to light by the Law, were at work in the parts of our body to bear fruit for death. 6 But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.​

 

[expos4ever]

Ceremonial laws (which kept the Jews separate from the Gentiles) were abolished on the cross (Ephesians 2:15), including circumcision.

How does Ephesians 2:15 specify that the ceremonial laws, to the exclusions of other categories of laws, were abolished? The author writes that that what ended was

"Law composed of commandments expressed in ordinances"

How do you know the scope of this is restricted to ceremonial law? You appear to believe that since Jews kept the ceremonial law while Gentiles did not, and since the whole argument in that section is that whatever has been abolished puts Jew and Gentile on equal footing, the stuff that was abolished must be the ceremonial law.

However, all the Law was given to the Jews , including the 10 commandments, and none to the Gentiles. So I do not see your argument works.

 

[expos4ever]

The Law did not end, but the power of the law over us (the redeemed) ended.

Where does scripture teach this? Paul writes (in Romans 7) that we no longer serve according to the law. This certainly sounds like a claim that we no longer follow the Law.

 

[expos4ever]

The Decalogue was upheld (Romans 3:21)...

The text does not support this assertion - where is there any direct or even indirect claim that the Decalogue was upheld:

But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets,

Do you believe the term "law" refers to the 10 only? There is no Biblical support for such a view, I suggest.

 

[expos4ever]

Thanks for sharing. I guess I don’t see in scripture that says God’s law is the Jewish law. I know this is a common teaching, but its not one seen in my Bible.

I doubt any scholar would deny that the "law", in almost all its uses in Scripture (though perhaps not all) is the "Jewish law" - this is exceedingly clear from Scripture. Here is just one example from Romans 3:

For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, 30 since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one

Obviously this passage proves Paul believe the law, at least the law he is referring to here, is for Jews only - otherwise the argument he is making here makes no sense at all.

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Where does He tell the Jew this, please?

“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. 19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20 For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven."

 

[Friedrich Rubinstein]

Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.

Lots of people quote this passage seemingly without reading it. Jesus says that the law will pass once it is fulfilled - after saying the he is the one who fulfills it all. At the cross.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

The Law did not end, but the power of the law over us (the redeemed) ended. The Law never brought life, rather the law brings death because it condemns us for our inability to be holy as God is holy. Through Christ, we are dead to the law and alive to grace.

Romans 7

4 Therefore, my brothers and sisters, you also were put to death in regard to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might belong to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God. 5 For while we were in the flesh, the sinful passions, which were brought to light by the Law, were at work in the parts of our body to bear fruit for death. 6 But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.​

Thanks for your contribution, this verse has been brought up more than once in this thread and people tend to focus more on this part of what Paul says:

6 But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound,

Instead of this part:

so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.

Is Paul teaching us we can now literally worship other gods, vain God's holy name, steal, murder or break any of God's commandments? Of course not, that is not what Paul is teaching here. Jesus came to magnify God's laws- which means makes greater, not lesser. Isaiah 42:21

Jesus gave an example of keeping the Spirit by saying murder begins in the heart. This is what the New Covenant is about, changing our heart from the inside to reflect what is on the outside. When one changes thoughts of hate towards our neighbor to thoughts of love, keeping the commandment to thou shalt not murder will automatically be kept. Jesus is not saying to go out and murder now and commit adultery and either is Paul. Jesus gives us the Holy Spirit so we can keep the commandments John 14:15-18 and the Spirit is given when we obey. Acts 2:38, Acts 5:32. Paul is not condoning lawlessness (without law) and either is Jesus or any of the disciples. God bless.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. 19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20 For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven."

Jesus does not contradict Himself from one sentence to another. I did not come to destroy the law and fulfill does not mean just that. It means to fill-full.

If I fill-full my wedding vows, does that mean I can break them and free to commit adultery or does it mean to fulfill my wedding vows that I am keeping them?

Matthew 5:19 says it all 19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

And than Jesus goes on to speak in detail about two of the commandments murder and adultery, which He is not advocating we are free to commit these sins.

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Lots of people quote this passage seemingly without reading it. Jesus says that the law will pass once it is fulfilled - after saying the he is the one who fulfills it all. At the cross.

Yes I know. This is prior to His death,resurrection and ascension. If one decides to reject Him, they are in bondage to the law. He was speaking to the Jews.
Blessings

 

[SabbathBlessings]

Yes I know. This is prior to His death,resurrection and ascension. If one decides to reject Him, they are in bondage to the law. He was speaking to the Jews.
Blessings

Matthew 7:21-23 comes to mind. Jesus is not teaching lawlessness (without law) and says the opposite, IF you love Me, keep My commandments. John 14:15