Wrong! Read my post again. The fact that some of what you selectively emphasized is correct but that does NOT negate the rest. What you think is not evidence of anything. The quotes I posted say nothing about murderers being spared.
I’m not limited to using your quotes. Bernstein’s book has additional material that does say this.
"Tractate Sanhedrin examines the question of capital punishment and, at the end, moves from the fate of executed criminals to the subject of death in general.15 Here the Mishnah makes a remarkable declaration: “All Israel have a portion in the world to come” (San. 90a; p. 601). This manifesto does not mean that only Jews may enjoy this inheritance, but rather that even criminals executed by the local courts do. It must be assumed that their deaths purge them of their sins."
(Bernstein, Alan E.. Hell and Its Rivals: Death and Retribution among Christians, Jews, and Muslims in the Early Middle Ages (p. 247). Cornell University Press.)
I'm using murderers as an example of a capital crime. There were others.
That death purges one of sin is supported by Paul: "For whoever has died is freed from sin." (Rom 6:7)
The problem is that there's lots of beliefs, many of which don't agree, over a long period of time. But I don't care what the Talmud asserts. It's all speculation, which has no real authority for me. Where it's useful is in illuminating what Jesus' hearers were likely to understand when he said what he did.
This isn't an easy job, because we have very little contemporary evidence. But as far as I can tell, the most likely views in Jesus' time said that all of Israel would come out of Gehennon except a few particularly notorious people. But Jesus was preaching to ordinary people. For them, Gehennon is probably a maximum of a year. The one-year maximum was highly controversial in the debates that happened over time. But it seems to have applied around Jesus' time.
Another, safer approach might be to say that given the varying ideas about Gehennon, people would understand it as referring to punishment in the afterlife but would not assume that Jesus was referring to any particular views of how long it lasted or who went there. In that sense, "hell" is a misleading translation, because for most people today it explicitly means ECT. Since Jesus used quite a variety of images, ranging from missing a dinner (Luke 14:15 ff), saying that he wasn't giving any particular description of the form punishment would take is probably a reasonable conclusion anyway. My real position is not universalism, but simply that Jesus taught that we would be accountable for what we did, without describing the specific way that accountability would happen.
For my skepticism over ECT I don't refer to any particular reconstruction of 1st Cent. Jewish views, but Paul's description of the end. I don't think that explicitly gives us universalism, but I don't see how eternal torment, particularly of most humans, could be consistent with it.