I'm mostly in agreement with you here. I agree it's physical and a type of resurrection. But it's also chronological in relation to when any of the lost rise. None of the lost ever rise before anyone having part in the first resurrection do. Jesus rose in this type of resurrection, the first resurrection. No lost souls rose before He did. Those resurrected in Matthew 27 you brought up, they rose in this type of resurrection, the first resurrection. No lost souls rose before they did. The 2 witnesses rise in this type of resurrection, the first resurrection. No lost souls rise before they do. The dead in Christ who rise first, rise in this type of resurrection, the first resurrection. No lost souls rise before they do. It makes it the first resurrection in this sense as well, that all of the saved rise before any of the lost ever do, since Revelation 20 only mentions 2 resurrections.
I have no clue what Amils are trying to do with the first resurrection? They are trying to make something plain and simple complicated instead.
I am not sure the GWT is a first resurrection. They are still dead standing before the GWT.
I have leanings to the point if they had a resurrection at the GWT, they would remain in the Lamb's book of Life and be allowed to live on earth and escape the Lake of Fire. Yet all seem to want a general resurrection at the GWT. No where does it claim these people are even in time on the NE looking around at the beautiful site, just to be cast into the Lake of Fire.
From what John wrote the GWT is the only thing in existence and time may not exist at all for this "event". I do not think those given a first resurrection, which would be all on earth and all in Paradise even witness the GWT. They would not be necessarily taken out of time, but the NHNE is immediate for them.
Some think this is a resurrection to somewhere. I think it is outside of existence, and a resurrection would place a soul back into a permanent incorruptible physical body on earth. Otherwise all the dead are brought out of sheol, Death, and the sea, and placed no where else but the LOF.
John calls it the second death only. There is no mention of a first resurrection or second resurrection. I think the assumed second resurrection that some
add to the 20th chapter is just that, an assumption. No second resurrection was chronologically implied. Those reading the NT should already know the first resurrection is physical and not chronological.
No where did John need to come back and explain Revelation 20, because it has no symbolism to explain. Most have to assume that John does explain in some chapters what the 7 Seals are, what the 7 Trumpets mean. Why the 7 vials. Not every chapter is a direct chronological point. There are not 7, 1000 year periods needing to be explained. There is only one, and hardly any explanation at all. There is still a chronological sequence to the events in the chapter, but not a chronological explanation, or even "why" for that matter. But we do know one reason for Satan being bound, and that is to prevent humans from being decieved.
"And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled:"
So no deception period for 1000 years. No one is in spiritual darkness nor bound by what sin can do. No deception period as before Adam disobeyed God. Not just an "elect few" on earth trying to "convert" people, but the whole earth, every nation not decieved by Satan. No one is decieved nor corrupted by sin period. That is what decieving the nations is. The 7th Trumpet had just ended all that Adam brought on the world. The 7th Trumpet finalized the points of Daniel's 70 weeks. Christ is now physically reigning from Jerusalem. Satan is bound. That is what John is implying, not a second resurrection. Not even a second
first resurrection.
Not sure if every translation, but:
"But the rest of the dead
lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection."
It does
not say they
did live again after the 1000 years. I also do not think
all living again is even implied. The point is that they could not live again until the 1000 years are up. Not even that they can live again. If this were a symbolic 1000 years, John would by implying they may only symbolically live again. Their living again is hinged on the validity of the 1000 years. Just something to think about.
If this chapter were literally about the last 1991 years, none of the people living in the last 1991 are even being addressed here. This is only talking about those who died prior to 30AD. This is only talking about those not resurrected at the Cross. Literally only those mentioned coming out the graves when Jesus died on the Cross have been alive for 1991 years reigning over the nations, if that is the symbolic application of Revelation 20. There is no mention at all about those born and living in the last 1991 years accept they attack Christ and the camp of the saints and are consumed by fire. Obviously OT saints have not been ruling the world for the last 1991 years. At least not by sight and certainly not in a camp that can be attacked soon, when Satan is let loose. Would not the same resurrected souls be the same saints in the camp with Christ?