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Yes, and both of those have in mind that Isaac is the child promised to Abraham that was conceived in accordance with God's plan rather than through Abraham's attempts to fulfill the promise prematurely. Isaac was Abraham's legitimate heir according to the flesh, and in that sense was unique among those classified as Abraham's sons. No need to appeal to some ill-defined category of "spiritual sons" when the text explicitly spells out that Ishmael is illegitamate because of Abraham's transgression in conception.Nice try but Hebrews is quoting Genesis 22:2.
Gen 22:2 And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.
Easter is the observance of Jesus' resurrection, while passover is the observation if God's destroyer "passing over " Israel when he killed the firstborn of Egypt.Would you agree that Easter is the celebration of the fulfillment of Passover?
I agree. The KJV has quite a few, and virtually all English Bible translations have some. After all, these translations are the products of God's perfect word being handled by imperfect men.In my Greek seminary studies, I discovered that one of the few KJV errors in translating happened when the translators confused two very similar verbals translated "only begotten" by them in the KJV. The correct Greek word is translated much more accurately as "one and only," meaning "unique," for Jesus as the Father's Son, as the NIV correctly translates it.
We can talk about the implications for a long time, but a friend of mine declared that on the basis of the KJV, Jesus had to have experienced birth before he came to earth and was therefore less than the Father in essence, a false conclusion proved to be so by the correct translations of the four much-more-ancient, major manuscripts discovered since the KJV was published.
My point is that wrong translations can lead to heresies. We should compare all of the translations with the Greek.
Call whatever you wish "Scripture". That's between you and God.So much for the canon of Scripture, then.
No it isn't "iysh", it's nothing... there is no Hebrew word for "him" in that verse. The pronominal suffix to "preserve" which is translated as "them" in Psalm 12:7, is in the third person masculine singular and that's why some translations say, "You will preserve HIM from this generation forever." instead of THEM. That's also why the KJV margin note says "him i. all of them". The KJV translators ALWAYS added margin notes where they were FORCED TO INTERPRET as part of their translation work.I believe it's "iysh" or something close.
It has nothing to do with the child being conceived in accordance with God's plan, it's not even about an earthly conception it's about a literal, real, spiritual conception. Isaac was literally the one and ONLY son that Abraham led to the Lord at that time. ISAAC WAS A BORN AGAIN CHRISTIAN.Yes, and both of those have in mind that Isaac is the child promised to Abraham that was conceived in accordance with God's plan rather than through Abraham's attempts to fulfill the promise prematurely. Isaac was Abraham's legitimate heir according to the flesh, and in that sense was unique among those classified as Abraham's sons. No need to appeal to some ill-defined category of "spiritual sons" when the text explicitly spells out that Ishmael is illegitamate because of Abraham's transgression in conception.
What does SACRIFICING the PASSOVER LAMB have to do with anything that happened to Jews in Egypt?Easter is the observance of Jesus' resurrection, while passover is the observation if God's destroyer "passing over " Israel when he killed the firstborn of Egypt.
Can you post any verses that support the idea that God's word would eventually become corrupted?I agree. The KJV has quite a few, and virtually all English Bible translations have some. After all, these translations are the products of God's perfect word being handled by imperfect men.
Can you post any verses that support the idea that God's word would eventually become corrupted?
A poor translation can't be considered scripture because the main qualifier of scritpture is that it's inspired by God.Do you agree that there can be poor translations?
There are parables and foreshadows in the bible that in my opinion point to God giving his word to all peoples in their native tongue. In my opinion the English bible is the KJV.Is that a specific Bible?
There are parables and foreshadows in the bible that in my opinion point to God giving his word to all peoples in their native tongue. In my opinion the English bible is the KJV.
I didn't at first but when I saw huge mistakes, lies and contradictions in other bibles I threw them in the trash can. Now I will only read the KJV.Do you exclude other Bibles then?
A poor translation can't be considered scripture because the main qualifier of scritpture is that it's inspired by God.
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
I didn't at first but when I saw huge mistakes, lies and contradictions in other bibles I threw them in the trash can. Now I will only read the KJV.
I didn't at first but when I saw huge mistakes, lies and contradictions in other bibles I threw them in the trash can. Now I will only read the KJV.