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Why Am I Eating a Pork Chop?

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prodromos

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LoveGodsWord

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Fine.
If you want to obey EVERY word that comes from the mouth of God, then I'm assuming you keep ALL the laws written in Exodus and Leviticus. How many people have you stoned for not keeping the Sabbath? Are your clothes made from ONE fabric only, no mixes. Do all your fields contain only one kind of seed? Do you offer animal sacrifices? Do you never trim your beard, if you have one? Do you avoid people with skin diseases? Etc etc.
If you believe all these things are commanded and you have to obey them, then that's what you must do.

God's will is that we believe in Jesus, John 6:40.
We can DO all things correctly but if we do not believe in Jesus, or if we have faith that something else other than Jesus can save us, it is no good.
Jesus ALONE saves, blesses and gives eternal life - not Jesus + food laws, baptism, church rules or anything else. Believing in Jesus AND keeping all the food laws etc doesn't make God love you any the more, nor earn you any more blessings, spiritual brownie points etc.
Jesus is THE Word of God.
And why would that be? We are in the new covenant now not the old covenant. Do you do animal sacrifices and follow the Sanctuary laws, the laws for the Levitical Priesthood for remission of sins? We are told why we no longer do them in Hebrews 7 to Hebrews 10 and elsewhere in the new testament scriptures.
 
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Servus

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Could have been. The question would be is WHEN was it added. Was it after 135 AD and the edict of Hadrian when Gentile Bishops were installed over Jewish Bishops?

It would be interesting to research. One article I've browsed so far indecates it's a legitimate addition. Obviously the translators of several major English translations consider it legitimate.

Here's what I've parused so far.
Was 'thus He declared all foods clean' inserted by man? - Mark 7:19

But regardless of that, to me the question remains, when has adhering to OT dietary laws ever been practiced in Christianity?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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It would be interesting to research. One article I've browsed so far indecates it's a legitimate addition. Obviously the translators several major English translations consider it legitimate.

Here's what I've parused so far.
Was 'thus He declared all foods clean' inserted by man? - Mark 7:19

But regardless of that, to me the question remains, when has adhering to OT dietary laws ever been practiced in Christianity?
Goodness your still going on about something that is not in the Greek. That article does not support a view that "Jesus declared all food clean" is in the Greek from Mark 7:19. Your kind of struggling with this one I can see.
 
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Servus

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Goodness your still going on about something that is not in the Greek. That article does not support a view that "Jesus declared all food clean" in the Greek from Mark 7:19. Your kind of struggling with this one I can see.

Not in the Greek according to who? Have you studied why expert translators have decided that it is in the Greek? Or are you only going by your ability to interpret Greek via an online lexicon?

And yes, I'm still pointing out that adhering to OT dietary laws has never been in Christianity because that is tremendously significant.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Not in the Greek according to who? Have you studied why expert translators have decided it is in the Greek? Or are you going by your ability to read Greek via an online lexicon?

And yes, I'm still pointing out that adhering to OT dietary laws has never been in Christianity because that is tremendously significant.

Are you still seriously trying to argue that "Jesus declared all foods clean" is in the Greek after you have already been shown it is not in the Greek or in context to Mark 7:19 which is to washing of hands, pots and cups and nothing to do with the clean and unclean food laws which is not even the topic of conversation to the context of Mark 7? Jesus is also speaking to Jews who know the dietary laws of clean and unclean foods. You were already shown this translation is not in the Greek and has been added in by some translators meaning it is a mistranslation to the actual Greek text. Look at the kjv. Many according to the scriptures will be ignoring God's dietary laws just before the second coming according to Isaiah 66:17.
 
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Are you still seriously trying to claim that "Jesus declared all foods clean" is in the Greek after you have already been shown it is not in the Greek or in context to Mark 7:19 and that it is not even the topic of conversation to the context of Mark 7? You were already shown this translation is not in the Greek and has been added in by some translators meaning it is a mistranslation. Look at the kjv. Many according to the scriptures will be ignoring God's dietary laws just before the second coming according to Isaiah 66:17.

I'm stating facts.

Fact 1. The translators of major English translations have concluded that the addition to Mark 7:19 is legitimate.

Fact 2. Adhering to OT dietary laws has never been been practiced in Christianity*

*With the sole exception being what SDA doctrine decided in the 19th century.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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And why would that be? We are in the new covenant now not the old covenant. Do you do animal sacrifices and follow the Sanctuary laws, the laws for the Levitical Priesthood for remission of sins? We are told why we no longer do them in Hebrews 7 to Hebrews 10 and elsewhere in the new testament scriptures.

Kinda hard to do since there is no Temple ;)
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I'm stating facts. Fact 1. The translators of major English translations have concluded that the addition to Mark 7:19 is legitimate. Fact 2. Adhering to OT dietary laws has never been been practiced in Christianity.
You haven't stated any facts. You have provided an opinion that has been shown, is not biblical. Who says that the dietary laws have not been practiced in Christianity? Even in Acts 15 for new Gentile believers they were told not to eat meat with the blood in it. Where do you think that command comes from?
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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It would be interesting to research. One article I've browsed so far indecates it's a legitimate addition. Obviously the translators of several major English translations consider it legitimate.

Here's what I've parused so far.
Was 'thus He declared all foods clean' inserted by man? - Mark 7:19

But regardless of that, to me the question remains, when has adhering to OT dietary laws ever been practiced in Christianity?

By Jewish Christians...probably from the beginning, I mean all were Jews. Gentile converts? Well that is the question...
 
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Servus

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You haven't stated any facts. You have provided an opinion that has been shown is not biblical. Who says that the dietary laws have not been practiced in Christianity?

Church history says, unless you can point out a time when it was. I know that you can't, because you and the SDA denomination would have done so already if it was.
 
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Servus

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By Jewish Christians...probably from the beginning, I mean all were Jews. Gentile converts? Well that is the question...

I doubt that even the children of the original Jewish Christians did.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Church history says, unless you can point out a time when it was. I know that you can't, because you and the SDA denomination would have done so already if it was.
Not really dear friend. There is no scripture for a change in the dietary laws of Leviticus 11:1-47 and Deuteronomy 14:1-29. Even in Acts of the Apostles 15:20 it tells new gentile believers not to eat meat with the blood in it right? Where do you think that law comes from *Deuteronomy 12:16? Do you eat red meat? If so why is the meat red? - Yep it has blood in it. So are you disregarding the scriptures and God's food laws? I have already pointed out that the bible as my source of time and evidence.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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I'm stating facts.

Fact 2. Adhering to OT dietary laws has never been been practiced in Christianity*

Actually that is not entirely true. The Ethiopian Orthodox do not eat pork and follow a kosher diet...
 
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Servus

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Not really dear friend. There is no scripture for a change in the dietary laws of Leviticus 11:1-47 and Deuteronomy 14:1-29. Even in Acts of the Apostles 15:20 it tells new gentile believers not to eat meat with the blood in it right? Where do you think that law comes from *Deuteronomy 12:16? Do you eat red meat? I have already pointed out the the bible as my source of time and evidence.

This isn't about what I do. It's about what the Eastern Orthodox Church, Roman Catholic Church and Protestant Churchs have been doing for the last 2000 years.

This is only an issue with a single Protestant denomination.
 
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Strong in Him

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And why would that be? We are in the new covenant now not the old covenant.

So why are you going back to the Old Covenant and arguing that we should keep part of it?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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This isn't about what I do. It's about what the Eastern Orthodox Church, Roman Catholic Church and Protestant Churchs have been doing for the last 2000 years.
I just quoted you scripture in the new testament that is from Gods dietary laws from Acts 15. Of course it is about if we follow Gods Word or not. You were also shown from Yeshua HaDerekh that other Christian Churches practice Gods' dietary laws. You really have no arguments now.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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So why are you going back to the Old Covenant and arguing that we should keep part of it?
I am not going back to the old covenant. The new covenant is based on the scriptures from the old covenant and better promises in relation to forgiveness of sins and God's laws written in the heart to love. It is the old covenant laws for remission of sins that are replaced in the new covenant not all of God's laws that originated in the old covenant. This can be shown in new covenant scripture
 
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