John 6:44 "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
Does the Father draw all people at some point in their life? And what about before the Father draws a person, are they able on their own, contrary to this verse, to come to Christ?
They believed (were saved) or they would not have sought answers and obeyed Peter.
And the context says,
“It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.” (John 6:45).
So every single man that "hath heard" and "hath learned of the Father", come to Christ. Let's put that together then.
6:37 - "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me..."
6:44 - "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him..."
6:45 - "Every man that hath heard and learned of the Father come to me..."
That sounds very providential. And my questions still remain: Does the Father draw all people at some point in their life? And what about before the Father draws a person, are they able on their own, contrary to this verse, to come to Christ?
And with the addition of verse 45, let's add another question - Can a man who has heard and learned of the Father choose not to come to Christ?
I believe it is possible for God to reach people even after death, some do not however.
Are you saying that you believe that salvation is still possible for those who have died in their sins? Please correct me if I'm wrong.
Yes, I believe salvation is possible even after death, but the only way is through the Lord Yeshua Christ.
I only get this idea and notion from the last chapter of the bible where it says that people who did not want nothing to do with God are outside of the city, enjoying what it is they like to do without God present.
All people sins in this world have been completely nullified by the blood of Christ Yeshua, even before coming to the notion of belief itself. In my case, was forgiven when I was created. So goes for all people no matter how bad they are in the flesh, their sins have been paid for.
The only thing they lack if anything is Faith and only God knows the heart of people, is if anyone believed on his son Yeshua Christ and desired God and Yeshua to be in their lives.
So is possible for people who died and are in God's city to go out to lost who still need help, after this life ? Who is to say, God knows our hearts and our desires when it comes to our fellow neighbors.
@Yesha The final resting place for hades and death is thrown in the lake of fire. That is what the scriptures indicate.
I believe these things have already happened and move on forward to Revelation chapter 21, so in my belief in believing the Hades/Hell/She'ol (Paradise/prison), Satan, Death, have been all conquered over because of the Lord Yeshua Christ, and to that effect I believe he done came back.
Even the great white judgement has happened. Was this judgement on the nation which God has been chosen as his own nation he worked through? It is possible, even while coming and taking the bride up to heaven?
Chapter 21, still has people that rejected God still alive, outside the city, and God said himself he rather have someone out right hate him, or love him.
Hope you forgive the long response, I get excited when explaining my beliefs regardless of what people may think of them! God bless friend thank you again. Yesha.
Friend, are you a full preterist?
Are you referring to Revelation 21:27?
But nothing unclean will ever enter it, nor anyone who does what is detestable or false, but only those who are written in the Lamb’s book of life.
Very welcome friend.Thank you for corresponding!
So every single man that "hath heard" and "hath learned of the Father", come to Christ. Let's put that together then.
6:37 - "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me..."
6:44 - "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him..."
6:45 - "Every man that hath heard and learned of the Father come to me..."
That sounds very providential. And my questions still remain: Does the Father draw all people at some point in their life? And what about before the Father draws a person, are they able on their own, contrary to this verse, to come to Christ?
And with the addition of verse 45, let's add another question - Can a man who has heard and learned of the Father choose not to come to Christ?
Who does anything if they do not believe it is worth doing?You speak your own opinion but offer no proof in the Bible that this is so.
This is why I tend to avoid these conversations. It's virtually impossible to get the person you're speaking with to engage with the actual verses you're using and to answer the actual questions you're asking.Jesus was first sent to the lost sheep of Israel. So those who have learned of the Father would be faithful Jews under the Old Covenant and not just anyone today. They were not being forced against their will to learn of the Father but they already decided to follow God along time ago.
This following of God was based on their choice. How so? Just check out the following verses.
Joshua 24:15 says,
“And if it seem evil unto you to serve the Lord, choose you this day whom ye will serve; whether the gods which your fathers served that were on the other side of the flood, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land ye dwell: but as for me and my house, we will serve the Lord.”
Deuteronomy 30:19 says,
“I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:”
Jeremiah 29:13 says,
“And ye shall seek me, and find me, when ye shall search for me with all your heart.”
This is why I tend to avoid these conversations. It's virtually impossible to get the person you're speaking with to engage with the actual verses you're using and to answer the actual questions you're asking.
You didn't address the verses I provided. You didn't answer the questions I asked. I suppose you don't want to actually have a meaningful discussion. If I'm wrong, please feel free to actually respond to the verses I posted and the questions I asked.
I find this response a little wanting.Yes, it is true that no man can come unto the Lord unless the Father draws Him, but the condition is verse 45 that says everyone who has learned of the Father comes unto Jesus. This is 100% true. Again, this is in reference in context of ALL Jews who were truly learning of God the Father (for real) would then naturally accept their Messiah; it's not talking about us Gentiles! Anyways, ALL Jews who were truly pure of heart were the ones who would all accept their Messiah.
Of course I didn't address your verses. Why would I when your response was essentially a stand alone response and had nothing to do with what I wrote? I'll show you respect and address what you write after you show the same courtesy and we adequately address the passages that I've brought up.You also did not explain the three verses that show that the Israelites had free will in accepting God. So you are not addressing any verses here.
I find this statement to be more revealing of yourself than anything. I'm not a Calvinist, and I've never called myself one. You apparently saw Calvinism yourself, when all I did was quote some verses and ask some questions. Perhaps you aren't being honest with yourself about what you see in Scripture?You just assert Calvinism is true
I find this response a little wanting.
Verse 44 states: "No one can come to me unless the Father who sent Me draws him." This seems to be a pretty clear statement. It would mean that if the Father didn't draw someone to Christ, then they wouldn't come to Christ. So the natural question that all of us should come up with would be: Does the Father draw all people towards Christ?
Jesus is quoting Isaiah in verse 45, and it seems to be saying that everyone who has truly heard and learned from the Father, will come to Christ.
But again, according to verse 44, it is the Father who must first draw a person to Christ, isn't it? How can it mean anything else? Can you reword verse 44 to say what you think it means if it doesn't mean that the Father must first draw someone to Christ before they accept Him?
You said:Of course I didn't address your verses. Why would I when your response was essentially a stand alone response and had nothing to do with what I wrote? I'll show you respect and address what you write after you show the same courtesy and we adequately address the passages that I've brought up.
You said:I find this statement to be more revealing of yourself than anything. I'm not a Calvinist, and I've never called myself one. You apparently saw Calvinism yourself, when all I did was quote some verses and ask some questions. Perhaps you aren't being honest with yourself about what you see in Scripture?
Sorry champ, but I don't lie. Most of the time I choose not to get involved in these discussions because when observing them, all I usually see is people talking across each other and ignoring what they actually say. This is what you did. You ignored the Scriptures I asked questions about and instead provided different Scriptures as if they somehow refuted those Scriptures. This is a poor and unproductive way to engage in discussion. It's not actually a discussion at all when that takes place. So I personally don't do it.No. You didn't address them because they refute your idea that salvation is forced upon us and it does not involve our free will.
Ok fair enough, so your understanding of this passage is that in the OT it was impossible for people to choose on their own to come to Jesus and that God had to first draw them.Again, the context is the Jews and not Gentiles!
Is it true that no man can come unto the Father unless the Father draws Him?
Yes, but this was applicable to the time of when Jesus was seeking the lost sheep of Israel, and it's not the time after the cross. When Jesus is lifted up (i.e. His death, burial, and resurrection), that is when He (JESUS) will draw all men unto Himself.
I completely agree with you, it certainly does not say in this passage that people cannot refuse the draw of Christ.For Jesus said,
“And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.” (John 12:32).
This suggests a change in how things work. Jesus will then do the drawing. But it does not say that when Jesus draws they cannot refuse.
I'm not pushing any interpretation of John 6:44, I'm merely asking questions. You ought to stop assuming. You know what they say about people who assume, right?If you are not a Calvinist, or if you do not have Calvinistic leanings, then you would not be pushing the Calvinistic interpretation on John 6:44.
Sorry champ, but I don't lie. Most of the time I choose not to get involved in these discussions because when observing them, all I usually see is people talking across each other and ignoring what they actually say. This is what you did. You ignored the Scriptures I asked questions about and instead provided different Scriptures as if they somehow refuted those Scriptures. This is a poor and unproductive way to engage in discussion. It's not actually a discussion at all when that takes place. So I personally don't do it.
You said:Ok fair enough, so your understanding of this passage is that in the OT it was impossible for people to choose on their own to come to Jesus and that God had to first draw them.
So my question is pretty simple then - In the OT, if it was impossible to come to Jesus without first being drawn by the Father, did the Father draw all men to Jesus in the OT?
You said:I completely agree with you, it certainly does not say in this passage that people cannot refuse the draw of Christ.
I'm not pushing any interpretation of John 6:44, I'm merely asking questions. You ought to stop assuming. You know what they say about people who assume, right?
I don't see how that corresponds to Jesus saying this:This was ONLY those Old Testament saint believers who were already learning of the Father already by their own free will choice to seek after God daily, and not just any Israelite who did not believe.
I provided no initial interpretation.Your initial interpretation on John 6:44 was Calvinistic
I'm sorry if I have questions because what you're saying doesn't yet seem to line up with what I'm reading.Thus, you would have agreed with me instead of fighting over it.