The term homosexual means someone with a particular sexual orientation. Paul's comments have two very clear qualifications:I can’t say that I disagree with you concerning the context. But that doesn’t change the fact that homosexuality is specifically mentioned in Romans as sinful.
* they are about pagans
* they are about people who abandoned their natural orientation for same-gender sex
Attempts to apply this to Christian gays fail both tests.
Is it conceivable that Paul might condemn same-gender sex in one setting, but that this might not apply in general? Ask yourself whether the many condemnations of illicit opposite-gender sex imply a general rejection of opposite-gender sex?
So why is Rom 1 not interpreted with the same care?
Incidentally, we know a fair amount of how same-gender sex was practice in Rom. I absolutely agree with Paul's condemnation of it in the pagan Roman context that is so explicitly referred to.
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