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LDS why is the BOM in King James English

mmksparbud

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You said: "There was no reformed Egyptian."

Not in Egypt, but we are not talking about Egypt are we? We are talking about a language handed down and altered by the descendants of the people of Nephi, and also of the Lamanites. It isn't like you would find that language in some other part of the world.

Then there would have been no need for a reformed Egyptian. They would have gone back to their own Hebrew---it is what they traditionally do. The Jew is the only people who maintained their own traditions even when they were absorbed by another culture. They learn the new language, but they keep what they have. It is what they did in Babylon---they adopted the Aramaic, but the scribes still maintained the Hebrew and they kept their traditions. That is why they could still trace the Ethiopian Jews when they were found. And then DNA proved them to be Jews. They would not have developed a reformed Egyptian to take with them to the Americas. They would have taken Hebrew or Egyptian, not a reformed Egyptian. It makes no sense.
 
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He is the way

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Then there would have been no need for a reformed Egyptian. They would have gone back to their own Hebrew---it is what they traditionally do. The Jew is the only people who maintained their own traditions even when they were absorbed by another culture. They learn the new language, but they keep what they have. It is what they did in Babylon---they adopted the Aramaic, but the scribes still maintained the Hebrew and they kept their traditions. That is why they could still trace the Ethiopian Jews when they were found. And then DNA proved them to be Jews. They would not have developed a reformed Egyptian to take with them to the Americas. They would have taken Hebrew or Egyptian, not a reformed Egyptian. It makes no sense.
As I understand it, the reformed Egyptian took up less space and was then easier to write. That would have been a good reason to use it.
 
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mmksparbud

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As I understand it, the reformed Egyptian took up less space and was then easier to write. That would have been a good reason to use it.


You think it's easier to learn a whole new language and write it, rather than continue in what you know? I hd to learn to speak and write a whole new language---it is not easy!
 
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He is the way

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You think it's easier to learn a whole new language and write it, rather than continue in what you know? I hd to learn to speak and write a whole new language---it is not easy!
It wasn't all that different, languages do change over time. Try reading Wycliffe's Bible.
 
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Peter1000

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The bible does not say that Jesus went to the Americas---the bible does not say that Moroni is an angel of God---that is only the opinion of the LDS.

The bible does say:

Mat_24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
Mar_13:22 For false Christs and false prophets shall rise, and shall shew signs and wonders, to seduce, if it were possible, even the elect.
Isa_8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
2Co_11:14 And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light.

Moroni was never tested by anyone to see what side he was on. We must go by what the bible says and all prophets and angels of God, pointed to the scriptures and Jesus. Moroni degraded the scriptures as being corrupted and pointed to JS now being more accurate than the bible because of the info the angel gave. That right there fits an angel of Satan, not an angel of God and is therefore not my opinion, but the opinion of the bible. You are free to choose whatever you want to believe in, as am I.

So if the bible does not say it, then we should not believe it. Right?

OK, then you can't believe in the Catholic church or the pope. Not in the bible. What was in the bible is that the Church of Jesus Christ was headquartered in Jerusalem, not Rome. Rome was just one branch of the Universal Church of Jesus Christ headquartered in Jerusalem. The Roman Catholic church spat on Jerusalem and usurped all it's authority and drug the church into the dark ages.
OK, then you can't believe in the Protestant Reformation. Not in the bible. Marin Luther and the Lutherans, or any of the protestant descendant churches are never mentioned in the bible.
OK, then you can't believe in any church that came from Catholic or Protestant events. Not in the bible.

I could fill many, many pages of stuff not in the bible that we give religious homage to today. And there are many many things that the bible does say that we ignore today in our religious affiliations. So I am sorry, you cannot say that because the bible did not say it, God cannot do it. Talk about a weak God.

And how could it be any different. The bible only has 1/1000th the words of Jesus and the apostles.
 
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mmksparbud

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So the if the bible does not say it, then we should not believe it. Right?

OK, then you can't believe in the Catholic church or the pope. Not in the bible. What was in the bible is that the Church of Jesus Christ was headquartered in Jerusalem, not Rome. Rome was just one branch of the Universal Church of Jesus Christ headquartered in Jerusalem. The Roman Catholic church spat on Jerusalem and usurped all it's authority and drug the church into the dark ages.
OK, then you can't believe in the Protestant Reformation. Not in the bible. Marin Luther and the Lutherans, or any of the protestant descendant churches are never mentioned in the bible.
OK, then you can't believe in any church that came from Catholic or Protestant events. Not in the bible.

I could fill many, many pages of stuff not in the bible that we give religious homage to today. And there are many many things that the bible does say that we ignore today in our religious affiliations. So I am sorry, you cannot say that because the bible did not say it, God cannot do it. Talk about a weak God.

And how could it be any different. The bible only has 1/1000th the words of Jesus and the apostles.

LOL! There are a lot of things the bible does not mention by name!! I'm talking about doctrine. The bible doesn't mention a combustion engine either---and no, I do not believe what the Catholic teach, nor do I believe in the Pope. They exist, though! I just do not believe in their doctrines---so don't go down on some ridiculous road that no one is talking about! I obviously don't believe in everything other churches believe in or I would not be what I am. And they do not believe in what I believe---however, except for the Catholics, I get my religious believes from scripture, and so do the rest of Christianity. It is a difference of interpretation on some verses. But with the LDS, it is a matter of making stuff up that does not even get mentioned in the bible. Like with the Pope, he has final authority, over the bible, the LDS has JS and any6 of their prophets over the bible. So basically, these leaders can say anything and their followers have to believe it, whether the bible says anything different or not.

And it doesn't matter that Jesus said 20 million more words than recorded, the point is what He said about our salvation is in the bible and they are sufficient for salvation. We do not need to know every single word Jesus spoke and every action He did, the purpose is salvation and to know who our God is---for that we have enough and need not make up stuff.
 
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dzheremi

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As I understand it, the reformed Egyptian took up less space and was then easier to write. That would have been a good reason to use it.

Less space than what? Easier to write than what?
 
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Peter1000

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It wasn't all that different, languages do change over time. Try reading Wycliffe's Bible.
My brother went to England on his mission, and it took him 3 or 4 months to get familiar with their English. He said when he first stepped off the plane and visited his first family, he was shocked that he could only pick up about every 5th word. And so he could not understand conversations until he got familiar with their English words.

So only 200 years separated from England and the language has changed dramatically, give it another 100 years and we won't know their English from ours.

So as you say language can change pretty fast, and so it did when Lehi's family moved from Jerusalem to the Americas, and after 1,000 years of isolation, is it any wonder we do not know their language.
It doesn't take a doctor of linguistics to know that. It's actually pretty logical.
 
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mmksparbud

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My brother went to England on his mission, and it took him 3 or 4 months to get familiar with their English. He said when he first stepped off the plane and visited his first family, he was shocked that he could only pick up about every 5th word. And so he could not understand conversations until he got familiar with their English words.

So only 200 years separated from England and the language has changed dramatically, give it another 100 years and we won't know their English from ours.

So as you say language can change pretty fast, and so it did when Lehi's family moved from Jerusalem to the Americas, and after 1,000 years of isolation, is it any wonder we do not know their language.
It doesn't take a doctor of linguistics to know that. It's actually pretty logical.

So you are saying that from the time these Lehi left Jerusalem to the time the Lehi's wrote their book, it had been over 200 years? And if so, if they came from Jerusalem, why are they writing and talking reformed Egyptian instead of reformed Hebrew? It's not logical to me.
 
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mmksparbud

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So the if the bible does not say it, then we should not believe it. Right?

OK, then you can't believe in the Catholic church or the pope. Not in the bible. What was in the bible is that the Church of Jesus Christ was headquartered in Jerusalem, not Rome. Rome was just one branch of the Universal Church of Jesus Christ headquartered in Jerusalem. The Roman Catholic church spat on Jerusalem and usurped all it's authority and drug the church into the dark ages.
OK, then you can't believe in the Protestant Reformation. Not in the bible. Marin Luther and the Lutherans, or any of the protestant descendant churches are never mentioned in the bible.
OK, then you can't believe in any church that came from Catholic or Protestant events. Not in the bible.

I could fill many, many pages of stuff not in the bible that we give religious homage to today. And there are many many things that the bible does say that we ignore today in our religious affiliations. So I am sorry, you cannot say that because the bible did not say it, God cannot do it. Talk about a weak God.

And how could it be any different. The bible only has 1/1000th the words of Jesus and the apostles.


Also, a true man of God, a true prophet who brings "new light", is not someone who brings totally different things from what the bible says---they see what is there in a new light. As with Luther and Calvin and all of them, they did not introduce something different from the bible, they introduced a different way of looking at what was already there. The object is to get back to what Jesus and the disciples actually believed and practiced. They just did not go far enough. They did not bring back the true Sabbath, they did see that there were no priests after the resurrection, and that Jesus is now our High Priest, they did not expound on what that means and what He is actually doing as our High Priest, they did not always take all the verses about a subject that are in the bible, such as the state of the dead and hell. None of them said anything contrary to the bible, they saw past the Pope and in to what the bible---all of it says, not just a verse or 2 about a subject but all verses about it. They did not see God as this vengeful God that is looking for a reason to wipe us out but as the Savior that His is and His great love for us. JS brings a whole different thing up and then bends verses to make it sound that is what it means, instead of taking what the verse says when compared to the rest of the bible says and look at what that says. Nowhere does the bible say we are to go to a priest for absolution for our sins---it was never the purpose of the Israelite priests to forgive sins, it was the shedding of the blood, the sacrifices that forgave as representing Jesus---that is why when Jesus forgave sins, they said He blasphemed, for none but God can forgive sins---what they did not see, is that Jesus is God.
 
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dzheremi

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As usual, I think our resident Mormons are forgetting (surely on purpose by this point, since it has been discussed ad nauseam) that for the entire time period which the BOM story claims to cover (c. 2500 BC to c. 400 AD, if this chart published in the Ensign and hosted on the official LDS website is to be taken seriously), we already know what forms of Egyptian were spoken and written. From Bard & Shubert (1999). Encyclopedia of the Archaeology of Ancient Egypt. Routledge. p. 325, as cited at Wiki, we can distinguish six major periods of Egyptian language development:

Notice how that covers from before 2600 BC (i.e., at least 100 years before the outer bound of the Mormon timeline) to well within the Christian era. There is some academic and popular debate as to when Coptic Egyptian stopped being a 'living' language (and out of respect for a popular opinion of the Coptic Orthodox people, I would never call it 'dead', exactly -- just heavily restricted, as we still use it in our liturgies; it is just no longer learned as a first language by anyone, sadly...at least not right now, unless we want to believe some unconfirmed and probably false or misleading reports from modern Egypt), but the newest original documents (i.e., not translations or transcriptions of scriptures or hymns) we have in the language are 13th century marriage documents from 1246 AD (963 Anno Martyrum, according to the Coptic calendar), which show indisputably that the latest form of the Egyptian language survived some eight centuries after the BOM story is said to have concluded. (These marriage documents are analyzed by Coptic scholar Leslie S.B. MacCoull in her article "The Strange Death of Coptic Culture", Coptic Church Review 10, 1989 -- for anyone who wants an academic reference.)

So the Mormons would have to show the actual existence of this 'Reformed Egyptian', whatever it actually is (language, script, or something else), in the same way that each of the stages of actual Egyptian is attested to in particular times and places. Until they can do that (which they cannot), they are not taken seriously by anyone working in any related field (linguistics, Coptology, archaeology, etc.), nor should they be. You have to earn being taken seriously in the scientific world by producing actual evidence and data. It is not enough to simply claim things which no other researcher accepts because you have a supposedly holy book which tries to invent people, places, and things which never existed, and you are required by your religious belief to believe that book rather than what actually exists in the real world.

It is enough for most Christians that Jerusalem, Bethlehem, etc. exist, and we find the various traditions of Christianity tied to the lands and peoples that it has always claimed to be tied to (whether in the Mediterranean or East Africa or India or wherever), and it is likewise enough for most Christians to notice that no such relationship exists between Mormonism and basically anything. Even their "Hill Cumorah" wasn't named that until 1829 (recall here that JS supposedly retrieved the golden plates in 1827), and by rights that's probably the most important place of pilgrimage for devout Mormons. It, like everything else that is actually testable about the Mormon story, fails even the most basic test of "Does this actually exist in history as it is claimed to or does it not?"

Mormonism is by a wide margin the least historically-based belief system in the world. Even when basing his understanding of Christianity on apocryphal or heretical sources, at least the Islamic prophet Muhammad obviously drew from preexisting Christian and Jewish traditions (i.e., things that actually existed in the world at the time and for some time before Muhammad's own era, whether they were right or not). Other than the Biblical text itself and perhaps some names from various apocryphal texts which have a striking resemblance to BOM character names, what is there in Mormonism that we can say with confidence predates Joseph Smith? Maybe some of the books that skeptics say JS relied on when writing the BOM, though of course Mormons reject that idea entirely, so really I don't know that there's anything at all.

How silly would it be to treat the claims of the people who have no evidence at all with the same seriousness with which we treat the claims of the academic Egyptologist, linguist, or even the churchman who is fluent in their own community's history? (e.g., historical sources like Sebeos of Armenia, Zacharias of Mytilene, the patriarch Michael the Syrian/Michael Rabbo, HG Bishop Severios Ibn al Muqaffa', etc.) I would never claim that we should take any of the claims of any of these people at face value (including claims that I make; that's why I try to include references for everything), but certainly it should be recognized that there is a marked difference between saying (as the Mormons must say) "I believe in this despite all the contradictory evidence, and no supporting evidence", and what we as Christians at least can say concerning our own faith -- namely, "I believe in this due to the consistent witness/through line of history as it exists across many different places over the past two millennia, despite the fact that the history is never cut and dry and so a fair bit of discernment must be used before accepting any particular source" (read: we don't just believe in anything or everything that is written somewhere, but at least we have those sources to critically evaluate in the first place, as part of the process of coming to understand our histories).
 
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mmksparbud

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Shorthand was developed to write things more condensed and faster. So reformed Egyptian may have been a more condensed type of Egyptian.

But, the Lehi's left Jerusalem ---where they spoke Hebrew. Why would they write in reformed Egyptian instead of reformed Hebrew--Jerusalem was/is a Hebrew speaking people--and Aramaic---not Egyptian. Why not reformed Aramaic---why reform any language that was not Hebrew- nor Aramaic? It simply makes no sense whatsoever.
 
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Peter1000

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So you are saying that from the time these Lehi left Jerusalem to the time the Lehi's wrote their book, it had been over 200 years? And if so, if they came from Jerusalem, why are they writing and talking reformed Egyptian instead of reformed Hebrew? It's not logical to me.
You have to read the BOM to understand. It is spelled out why they did what they did, right from the book itself.

Since the family of Lehi traded with the Egyptians, they knew their language, especially their business language. The Hebrew written language is cumbersome and long. It was not a good language to write on gold plates. Therefore Nephi says:
1 Nephi 1:2
Yea, I make a record in the language of my father, which consists of the learning of the Jews and the language of the Egyptians.

You know the page you read and then puked and did not read any more of the BOM beause you knew it false.

If JS had made this up, why would he have said such a stupid thing? Why get off on this Egyptian thing which could run into a great big rabbit hole. Why mess with it? If he were the writer he would not have done it. This Egyptian thing proves that JS is not the author, but he is the translator of things written by these people who were using the Egyptian as their written language.
 
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Peter1000

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As usual, I think our resident Mormons are forgetting (surely on purpose by this point, since it has been discussed ad nauseam) that for the entire time period which the BOM story claims to cover (c. 2500 BC to c. 400 AD, if this chart published in the Ensign and hosted on the official LDS website is to be taken seriously), we already know what forms of Egyptian were spoken and written. From Bard & Shubert (1999). Encyclopedia of the Archaeology of Ancient Egypt. Routledge. p. 325, as cited at Wiki, we can distinguish six major periods of Egyptian language development:

Notice how that covers from before 2600 BC (i.e., at least 100 years before the outer bound of the Mormon timeline) to well within the Christian era. There is some academic and popular debate as to when Coptic Egyptian stopped being a 'living' language (and out of respect for a popular opinion of the Coptic Orthodox people, I would never call it 'dead', exactly -- just heavily restricted, as we still use it in our liturgies; it is just no longer learned as a first language by anyone, sadly...at least not right now, unless we want to believe some unconfirmed and probably false or misleading reports from modern Egypt), but the newest original documents (i.e., not translations or transcriptions of scriptures or hymns) we have in the language are 13th century marriage documents from 1246 AD (963 Anno Martyrum, according to the Coptic calendar), which show indisputably that the latest form of the Egyptian language survived some eight centuries after the BOM story is said to have concluded. (These marriage documents are analyzed by Coptic scholar Leslie S.B. MacCoull in her article "The Strange Death of Coptic Culture", Coptic Church Review 10, 1989 -- for anyone who wants an academic reference.)

So the Mormons would have to show the actual existence of this 'Reformed Egyptian', whatever it actually is (language, script, or something else), in the same way that each of the stages of actual Egyptian is attested to in particular times and places. Until they can do that (which they cannot), they are not taken seriously by anyone working in any related field (linguistics, Coptology, archaeology, etc.), nor should they be. You have to earn being taken seriously in the scientific world by producing actual evidence and data. It is not enough to simply claim things which no other researcher accepts because you have a supposedly holy book which tries to invent people, places, and things which never existed, and you are required by your religious belief to believe that book rather than what actually exists in the real world.

It is enough for most Christians that Jerusalem, Bethlehem, etc. exist, and we find the various traditions of Christianity tied to the lands and peoples that it has always claimed to be tied to (whether in the Mediterranean or East Africa or India or wherever), and it is likewise enough for most Christians to notice that no such relationship exists between Mormonism and basically anything. Even their "Hill Cumorah" wasn't named that until 1829 (recall here that JS supposedly retrieved the golden plates in 1827), and by rights that's probably the most important place of pilgrimage for devout Mormons. It, like everything else that is actually testable about the Mormon story, fails even the most basic test of "Does this actually exist in history as it is claimed to or does it not?"

Mormonism is by a wide margin the least historically-based belief system in the world. Even when basing his understanding of Christianity on apocryphal or heretical sources, at least the Islamic prophet Muhammad obviously drew from preexisting Christian and Jewish traditions (i.e., things that actually existed in the world at the time and for some time before Muhammad's own era, whether they were right or not). Other than the Biblical text itself and perhaps some names from various apocryphal texts which have a striking resemblance to BOM character names, what is there in Mormonism that we can say with confidence predates Joseph Smith? Maybe some of the books that skeptics say JS relied on when writing the BOM, though of course Mormons reject that idea entirely, so really I don't know that there's anything at all.

How silly would it be to treat the claims of the people who have no evidence at all with the same seriousness with which we treat the claims of the academic Egyptologist, linguist, or even the churchman who is fluent in their own community's history? (e.g., historical sources like Sebeos of Armenia, Zacharias of Mytilene, the patriarch Michael the Syrian/Michael Rabbo, HG Bishop Severios Ibn al Muqaffa', etc.) I would never claim that we should take any of the claims of any of these people at face value (including claims that I make; that's why I try to include references for everything), but certainly it should be recognized that there is a marked difference between saying (as the Mormons must say) "I believe in this despite all the contradictory evidence, and no supporting evidence", and what we as Christians at least can say concerning our own faith -- namely, "I believe in this due to the consistent witness/through line of history as it exists across many different places over the past two millennia, despite the fact that the history is never cut and dry and so a fair bit of discernment must be used before accepting any particular source" (read: we don't just believe in anything or everything that is written somewhere, but at least we have those sources to critically evaluate in the first place, as part of the process of coming to understand our histories).
Is Archaic Egyptian exactly the same as Coptic Egyptian? Could you say that Coptic is a reformed Arcaic Egyptian?

Is Late Egyptian a reformed Old Egyptian?

Is Demotic Egyptian a reformed Egyptian from any of the earlier Egyptians?
 
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He is the way

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As usual, I think our resident Mormons are forgetting (surely on purpose by this point, since it has been discussed ad nauseam) that for the entire time period which the BOM story claims to cover (c. 2500 BC to c. 400 AD, if this chart published in the Ensign and hosted on the official LDS website is to be taken seriously), we already know what forms of Egyptian were spoken and written. From Bard & Shubert (1999). Encyclopedia of the Archaeology of Ancient Egypt. Routledge. p. 325, as cited at Wiki, we can distinguish six major periods of Egyptian language development:

Notice how that covers from before 2600 BC (i.e., at least 100 years before the outer bound of the Mormon timeline) to well within the Christian era. There is some academic and popular debate as to when Coptic Egyptian stopped being a 'living' language (and out of respect for a popular opinion of the Coptic Orthodox people, I would never call it 'dead', exactly -- just heavily restricted, as we still use it in our liturgies; it is just no longer learned as a first language by anyone, sadly...at least not right now, unless we want to believe some unconfirmed and probably false or misleading reports from modern Egypt), but the newest original documents (i.e., not translations or transcriptions of scriptures or hymns) we have in the language are 13th century marriage documents from 1246 AD (963 Anno Martyrum, according to the Coptic calendar), which show indisputably that the latest form of the Egyptian language survived some eight centuries after the BOM story is said to have concluded. (These marriage documents are analyzed by Coptic scholar Leslie S.B. MacCoull in her article "The Strange Death of Coptic Culture", Coptic Church Review 10, 1989 -- for anyone who wants an academic reference.)

So the Mormons would have to show the actual existence of this 'Reformed Egyptian', whatever it actually is (language, script, or something else), in the same way that each of the stages of actual Egyptian is attested to in particular times and places. Until they can do that (which they cannot), they are not taken seriously by anyone working in any related field (linguistics, Coptology, archaeology, etc.), nor should they be. You have to earn being taken seriously in the scientific world by producing actual evidence and data. It is not enough to simply claim things which no other researcher accepts because you have a supposedly holy book which tries to invent people, places, and things which never existed, and you are required by your religious belief to believe that book rather than what actually exists in the real world.

It is enough for most Christians that Jerusalem, Bethlehem, etc. exist, and we find the various traditions of Christianity tied to the lands and peoples that it has always claimed to be tied to (whether in the Mediterranean or East Africa or India or wherever), and it is likewise enough for most Christians to notice that no such relationship exists between Mormonism and basically anything. Even their "Hill Cumorah" wasn't named that until 1829 (recall here that JS supposedly retrieved the golden plates in 1827), and by rights that's probably the most important place of pilgrimage for devout Mormons. It, like everything else that is actually testable about the Mormon story, fails even the most basic test of "Does this actually exist in history as it is claimed to or does it not?"

Mormonism is by a wide margin the least historically-based belief system in the world. Even when basing his understanding of Christianity on apocryphal or heretical sources, at least the Islamic prophet Muhammad obviously drew from preexisting Christian and Jewish traditions (i.e., things that actually existed in the world at the time and for some time before Muhammad's own era, whether they were right or not). Other than the Biblical text itself and perhaps some names from various apocryphal texts which have a striking resemblance to BOM character names, what is there in Mormonism that we can say with confidence predates Joseph Smith? Maybe some of the books that skeptics say JS relied on when writing the BOM, though of course Mormons reject that idea entirely, so really I don't know that there's anything at all.

How silly would it be to treat the claims of the people who have no evidence at all with the same seriousness with which we treat the claims of the academic Egyptologist, linguist, or even the churchman who is fluent in their own community's history? (e.g., historical sources like Sebeos of Armenia, Zacharias of Mytilene, the patriarch Michael the Syrian/Michael Rabbo, HG Bishop Severios Ibn al Muqaffa', etc.) I would never claim that we should take any of the claims of any of these people at face value (including claims that I make; that's why I try to include references for everything), but certainly it should be recognized that there is a marked difference between saying (as the Mormons must say) "I believe in this despite all the contradictory evidence, and no supporting evidence", and what we as Christians at least can say concerning our own faith -- namely, "I believe in this due to the consistent witness/through line of history as it exists across many different places over the past two millennia, despite the fact that the history is never cut and dry and so a fair bit of discernment must be used before accepting any particular source" (read: we don't just believe in anything or everything that is written somewhere, but at least we have those sources to critically evaluate in the first place, as part of the process of coming to understand our histories).
Why are there still atheists? Atheists are quick to point out what they believe to be true that the Bible is fiction and that the flood never happened. Can you prove to an atheist that the Bible is true? I've tried but it is not that easy to do. People tend to believe whatever they want to believe whether they are right or not. They all have arguments as to why they are right and everyone else is wrong and the kind of proof that is necessary for something to be true or false. That being said the Bible states this:

(New Testament | James 1:5 - 7)

5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him.
6 But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed.
7 For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord.
 
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mmksparbud

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You have to read the BOM to understand. It is spelled out why they did what they did, right from the book itself.

Since the family of Lehi traded with the Egyptians, they knew their language, especially their business language. The Hebrew written language is cumbersome and long. It was not a good language to write on gold plates. Therefore Nephi says:
1 Nephi 1:2
Yea, I make a record in the language of my father, which consists of the learning of the Jews and the language of the Egyptians.

You know the page you read and then puked and did not read any more of the BOM beause you knew it false.

If JS had made this up, why would he have said such a stupid thing? Why get off on this Egyptian thing which could run into a great big rabbit hole. Why mess with it? If he were the writer he would not have done it. This Egyptian thing proves that JS is not the author, but he is the translator of things written by these people who were using the Egyptian as their written language.

Does not add up. The Jews in Jerusalem spoke Hebrew--or Aramaic--the Egyptians also would speak Aramaic. It makes no sense to learn a whole different language and style of writing than your own. When taking notes during classes people will make their own shorthand. Even secretaries, who use shorthand, have their own style of shorthand---I had to learn it way back in the days of Noah. This truly makes no sense. Go to Texas, they speak fluent Tex/Mex---not fluent shorthand Egyptian. This would make sense if the writing had been Hebrew/Aramaic--and even that shortened. Most people were not very literate, except the Jews took pride in reading the scriptures and had more education in the reading and writing of their language. They had no reason to learn to write Egyptian in Jerusalem,, even if they spoke it. They did know Hebrew and some knew Aramaic
The thing is, when we make up stories, you can get carried away and always make mistakes. It's not hard to figure out that the reason that JS made this mistake is because no-one had yet deciphered the Egyptian hieroglyphics and thought this would be a safe bet that no one would figure out all of this was a hoax. You see, even Satan knows the past, but he does not know the future, neither did JS, even though the deciphering was just about to happen.
 
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dzheremi

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Why are there still atheists?

What do atheists have to do with anything? That's not the topic. We're talking about the Mormon claims concerning 'Reformed Egyptian'.

Atheists are quick to point out what they believe to be true that the Bible is fiction and that the flood never happened. Can you prove to an atheist that the Bible is true?

Probably not, so it's a good thing that that's not what we're talking about. We're talking about the existence or nonexistence of 'Reformed Egyptian'. That's something that can be known by looking at what we actually have evidence of for the claimed time period.

I've tried but it is not that easy to do. People tend to believe whatever they want to believe whether they are right or not. They all have arguments as to why they are right and everyone else is wrong and the kind of proof that is necessary for something to be true or false.

But that's not what I'm saying. I'm presenting the evidence that is known about what forms of Egyptian were spoken and written at which particular times and places. It has nothing to do with declaring everyone else wrong, but of making it clear what we can base our understanding of things on, precisely because it's not just a matter of differing opinions -- it's a matter of evidence vs. no evidence. In other words, this cannot be analogized to an argument between an atheist and a believer on religious/supernatural (read: non-scientific) matters, because it's not a 'religious' question to begin with. It's not like I'm arguing that Coptic was spoken in place X at time Y because the Bible says XYZ. No. When I claim something about language (whether it's in agreement with any Mormon or non-Mormon or not), it's because that's what the evidence shows.

That being said the Bible states this:

(New Testament | James 1:5 - 7)

5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him.
6 But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed.
7 For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord.

Okay. How is this evidence of anything? If God made Reformed Egyptian a real thing (or the Jaredites, or Zarahemla, or any of the other things that Mormons believe in with no supporting evidence whatsoever) and then took it away such that there's literally no evidence of it having ever existed, then you should really ask yourself why He then sees fit to allow you to continue to argue as poorly as you do. If what you post is evidence of the 'wisdom' you supposedly got from Him, then you might want to ask Him to please stop making you make falsifiable claims about observable phenomena in the world (e.g., languages and writing systems), and instead stick to the kinds of claims that cannot be falsified -- e.g., "I believe in this because the BOM says so" (read: not because there's any scientific/naturalistic backing).

Of course I do not for one second believe that what you are writing here has anything to do with any wisdom gained from petitioning God, that's neither here nor there because the standard for making claims about the world in society in general is the scientific one (that we back up what we claim with evidence). What you're doing now really doesn't cut it according to any standard that you'd find outside of a Mormon meeting hall, and last time I checked this subforum was not a Mormon meeting hall. So don't complain to me about atheists or implicate God in this. You're doing this yourself. You can stop any time. You don't have to make falsifiable claims about language and writing systems.
 
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mmksparbud

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mmksparbud, I would not have thought you old enough to be taking shorthand in the days of Noah!

At 69, that is considered as ancient as Noah, just ask my 12 year old nephew!
 
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