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You’re not saved, so you must repent and believe the gospel.For what? Did I not agree with you, and so I must repent?
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You’re not saved, so you must repent and believe the gospel.For what? Did I not agree with you, and so I must repent?
So are you saying that Jesus Christ is a spirit:
(New Testament | Luke 24:38 - 43)
38 And he said unto them, Why are ye troubled? and why do thoughts arise in your hearts?
39 Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.
40 And when he had thus spoken, he shewed them his hands and his feet.
41 And while they yet believed not for joy, and wondered, he said unto them, Have ye here any meat?
42 And they gave him a piece of a broiled fish, and of an honeycomb.
43 And he took it, and did eat before them.
Note the KJV rendering, as other renderings - like the RSV - say "God is spirit", taking what in English is a far more metaphorical approach to matters.
JST
John 4:24 For unto such hath God promised his Spirit. And they who worship him, must worship in spirit and in truth.
We do not have the original, only copies.
Please, you must think the entire world is stupid to think that the Isaiah Scroll, and the MasoreticAnd, where are the gold plates?
Textual Criticism and quotes from Church Fathers has proven that the Bible we have today is as close as one can get. In fact, when the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered we have another copy of Isaiah which is about a thousand years older than what we had back then. I am happy to say, the words were word for word the same.
He already said that He has a resurrected body of flesh and bones which a spirit does not have.Before he incarnated on earth, yes he was fully spirit. On earth he was fully human and fully Divine(spirit). Others will have to explain how he is now.
We don't have all of the texts including the original text but this we do know, Jesus Christ has a body of flesh and bones.wow, you just proved that whoever JST is a false teacher.
Why, because there is no greek, latin, nor hebrew text that has that wording.
Not what I asked. Show me where the original Hebrew, Greek, and/or Aramaic are incorrect. All you've shown is that JS didn't like what his Bible said so he changed it to fit his theology.I can show you where the Bible was incorrect before the JST corrected it:
(Old Testament | Numbers 23:19)
19 God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?
KJV
(Old Testament | Jonah 3:9 - 10)
9 Who can tell if God will turn and repent, and turn away from his fierce anger, that we perish not?
10 ¶ And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.
JST:
(Old Testament:Jonah 3:9 - 10)
9 Who can tell if we will repent, and turn unto God, but he will turn away from us his fierce anger, that we perish not?
10 ¶ And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and repented; and God turned away the evil that he had said he would bring upon them; and he did it not.
God does NOT repent.
No one has the original Hebrew, Greek, and/or Aramaic texts of the Bible.Not what I asked. Show me where the original Hebrew, Greek, and/or Aramaic are incorrect. All you've shown is that JS didn't like what his Bible said so he changed it to fit his theology.
We can be sure what they say, though.No one has the original Hebrew, Greek, and/or Aramaic texts of the Bible.
“God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.”
John 4:24 KJV
Welcome back, first of all.I love this argument. The people who use it as proof against God having a body ignore, either intentionally or because they don't understand the difference, that the argument relies on changing the dynamics of the verse halfway through.
This argument takes the stand that God is a Spirit is a literal meaning of the word. As in, God is a being of spirit and apparently only spirit. (Which ignores the possibility that God could be both a person of spirit and a physical entity. After all, doesn't Christianity believe that God is all-powerful and nothing is beyond His ability?)
Then the second half of the argument relies on taking a metaphorical interpretation of the verse. Because we are not being asked to turn into beings of spirit only and then worship God. If that were the case none of us could worship God. We are beings of both spirit and flesh. And in this instance, we are being asked to call on our spiritual nature to worship.
Literal compared to metaphorical = flawed argument.
We can be physical beings asked to worship in a spiritual nature but God can only be a being of spirit = flawed argument.
No you can't. Things can change in one copy besides not all of the copies agree.We can be sure what they say, though.
You are ignorant of textual criticism. Reading up on it would be beneficial.No you can't. Things can change in one copy besides not all of the copies agree.
I suspect we will just have to agree to disagree about this.You are ignorant of textual criticism. Reading up on it would be beneficial.
Lol. Okay. Except there’s nothing to disagree on. It’s like me saying that peanuts aren’t nuts, and you saying that we will have to agree to disagree.I suspect we will just have to agree to disagree about this.
Since you don't have the original text and only copies you can not prove that the copies are the same. They were not made on copy machines. They were rewritten and there are differences between the copies.Lol. Okay. Except there’s nothing to disagree on. It’s like me saying that peanuts aren’t nuts, and you saying that we will have to agree to disagree.
What are those variants? Do we get two completely different bibles?Since you don't have the original text and only copies you can not prove that the copies are the same. They were not made on copy machines. They were rewritten and there are differences between the copies.
"
Today textual critics are divided on which of the thousands of manuscripts and papyri coming from these areas are most accurate. For most, the arguments boil down to two areas—the Alexandrian (Egyptian) Greek and the Byzantine Greek texts. When we compare the manuscripts from each we find a number of variants between these families. So there was some failure to copy one or the other accurately. The question is, which is more accurate and which is less accurate?
Most scholars today think that the texts from Alexandria, because they are older, are more accurate or closer to the originals. The oldest Alexandrian manuscripts date from around the fourth century after Christ while the oldest Byzantine manuscripts come from around the seventh century."
From: Why Are There Differences in Ancient New Testament Manuscripts?
Even among the many translations there are many differences. Some of them have very different meanings. I know this because I have compared them.