Problem. You don't speak Biblical Greek or write it.
How do you know?
Even if you did based on today's understanding that is just called “guessing” as to what a dead language says.
I would imagine that translation is only "guessing" if it does not agree with what you want it to say.
If it could be proved that the KJV agreed perfectly with the Greek, you would not be saying that - at all. You'd be shouting it from the rooftops and rubbing my nose in it at every opportunity.
You did not grow up in Biblical Greek times and lived in that world to truly know that language.
There are people, even on these forums, who understand, and have studied, Koine Greek.
If one of them was a KJV only person, I've no doubt you'd listen to them.
You are ony guessing as to what a dead language says.
No, I have Koine Greek dictionary and trust those who have studied, and translated, the Greek.
You won't trust them, because they might prove that in some cases the KJV has got it wrong - so you just bad mouth the language itself by calling it a dead language.
Guess what? KJV English is dead too.
Unless you have a time machine and can prove your Greek correct, I simpy would not agree with what you believe scholars say.
No, of course you won't.
The only scholars you'll believe are those who say, "on this point, the KJV is more accurate/a better translation" or who teach that generally it is the best thing ever.
The NT was written in GREEK, not KJV English.
Scholars translated the KJV from the Greek - i.e from a "dead" language. But there's no way you would tell them that they were only guessing; that they needed a time machine to go back and prove what the Greek said.
So isn't it slightly daft to insist that no one can understand what a dead language says, when you, yourself, read a Bible that was translated, by scholars, from a dead language?