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Paul clearly taught that the doers of the law of God/Moses will be declared righteous before God.On what basis do you claim otherwise?
Give me two (only two) great examples. Thanks.
Preferably not examples of a reference to the books of the law. If you know the difference.
Nor OBVIOUSLY any example where the word "of" follows "the law". As in "the law of..."
you present Paul as contradicting himself, because he says in the next chapter that no flesh is justified by “works of law” and in several other places.
I am confident you do not think that Paul is contradicting himself, but your understanding of what “works of law” are, creates and sustains a contradiction throughout the NT.
Romans 2:13
For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified
Romans 3:20
Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight
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