One might come to this conclusion if they only read their out-of-context proof texts and ignore that old heterodox bugaboo "context."
Let us read a passage Revelation that deals with death being eliminated.
Note, this passage is one continuous narrative some folks desperately try to make this passage support various heterodox beliefs. Verse 5 is after vs. 4, vs. 6 is after vs. 5 etc. there is no logical or grammatical way any verse can be “moved” before or after any other verse.
Revelation 21:4-8
(4) And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.
(5) And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful.
(6) And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.
(7) He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son.
(8) But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
The voice from the throne says “no more death, vs. 4, “I make all things new,” vs. 5, “it is done,” vs. 6.
But after “no more death” etc. in vs. 8, eight groups of people are thrown into the lake of fire which is still “the second death,”
See vs. 7, “He that overcomes shall inherit all things,” n.b. there is a condition to inherit all things.” The converse is “He that does NOT overcome shall NOT inherit anything.” For UR to be correct this verse should read “everyone shall inherit all things; and I will be their God, and they shall be my son.”