- Oct 16, 2004
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Presumably there were other races for Cain to get his wife from. Incest wasn't necessary. Let me explain.The only way that Cain's wife could not be a daughter of Adam, is if the creation of man and woman in Genesis 1 is different from the creation of Adam and Eve in Genesis 2. I don't find it likely, because even in genetics there is evidence of what they call the Mitochondrial Eve. Every single human on this planet traces their matriarchal lineage to her (the mitochondria have a different DNA sequence than our own, and they come from the egg cell, so it's traced by matriarchal lineage rather than patriarchal).
The only way God can justify allowing the sin of Adam to be detrimental to all humanity is if we are Adam - each of our souls is a subsection of his (originally dense) physical soul. I made a thread on this. YOU sinned in the garden even though you don't remember doing so, therefore.
Adam was the first 'man' in the strict sense of a soul endued with a conscience. The fossil record, however, indicates he wasn't the first humanoid. These humanoids physically resembled Adam but were not the first 'men' because they lacked conscience - regardless of how sentient their souls.
As already suggested, after Adam's fall, God redistributed his sin-stained soul among his descendants (otherwise there is no way to explain how we managed to be born tainted) - AND ALSO DISTRIBUTED IT AMONG THOSE HUMANOIDS. Thus by Cain's day, many of those humanoids were real men and women, possessing the very self-same conscience of Adam, and thus perfectly suitable as a source of eligible wives for Cain. Problem solved.
I'm an OEC by the way...
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