But scripture has given him the title nonetheless, even if it only appears in the epistles of John.
The title does not appear in Scripture outside of John's epistles.
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But scripture has given him the title nonetheless, even if it only appears in the epistles of John.
I searched it. It does not exist.
The title does not appear in Scripture outside of John's epistles.
You did not search hard enough. Otherwise, you would have found this cited on pg. 65-66 of your first source link:
"What! have we supplanted the Jews? No, but we are said to be their supplanters, for that for our sakes they were supplanted. If they had not been blinded, Christ would not have been crucified; His precious Blood would not be shed; if that Blood had not been shed, the world would not have been redeemed. Because then their blindness hath profited us, therefore hath the elder brother been supplanted by the younger, and the younger is called the Supplanter. But how long shall this be?...The time will come, the end of the world will come, and all Israel shall believe; not they who now are, but their children who shall then be."
And that matters because? It is still in the scriptures and is tied to the one who will declare himself to be God at a unspecified time yet in a specific place.
Ah, "supplant". If only I'd known.
Does Augustine here or anywhere else declare or imply that Israel is a separate people of God who will be saved outside of the Church?
It is not "still in the scriptures" outside of John's epistles.
That matters because no one should believe what is not there.
It tells me "no". What does it tell you?
After those 483 years Messiah will be killed, but not for Himself. Well your preacher said the 483 years started at Jesus' Baptism by John in 27 AD (that is when He said the most holy was anointed by Israel), a re translation of what Baptism is. So sometime after Jesus baptism he had to die! Why would God speak in such specific time frames throughout this prophecy and then go dark as to meaning that after 483 years actually meant 3 1/2 more years? That is foolish!
But it is in the scriptures, even if only in the epistles of John and is the identity by whom this wicked man who is to come is known.
It tells me that Israel will one day be saved and in being saved, they will be made a part of the Church yet retain their distinctiveness as a nation.
It is claimed to be known by the disciples of dispensational futurism.
No one else.
Where does Augustine claim that they will retain their distinctiveness as a nation?
Then that would make dispensational futurists more knowledgeable in the scriptures than those who are not.
Where does he claim they will cease to be a nation?
It makes dispensational futurists presumptive and speculative in the Scriptures.
The Reformers recognized the apostate papacy of their time as the predominant antichrist of their time.
They exemplified true knowledgeability in the Scriptures.
They ceased to be a nation in 70 AD and were not a nation when Augustine wrote.
He further identified Israel:
"Therefore the people of God, the Christian people in this present time, is both Jacob and Israel, Jacob in fact, Israel in hope."
But the apostate papacy was not the foretold Anti-Christ and the reformers never put much emphasis on eschatology any way.
Read his quote again.To better rephrase the question, where did he state that they would never again become a nation?