Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
He does not change and neither does his law.
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
He does not change and neither does his law.
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Lets try to have a respectable discussion.
So we know that God gave the 10 commandments to Moses on Mt. Sinai. My question is, did the 10 commandments exist before then. Like when did taking God's name in vain start being a sin, or when did lying and stealing start being a sin?
Well that's sort of back into front. How can the sins be identified if there was no law?Probably just as soon as they (sins) were identified...
*I think they were identified before Sinai.
Well that's sort of back into front. How can the sins be identified if there was no law?
So when we speak about the law its really encompasses a lot which is why i wanted to be specific about the ten commandments. There are laws about how how priests should be selected, laws about what specific animal needs to be sacrificed for a specific ceremony, stuff that you know is only applicable to the system at that time.
But you mentioned that you believe the ten commandments were in addition to the knowledge of right and wrong that God imparts to every person and I am not sure I agree. I remember a verse which talks about the gentiles naturally doing the things contained in the law. So that says to me its not in addition.
Lets try to have a respectable discussion.
So we know that God gave the 10 commandments to Moses on Mt. Sinai. My question is, did the 10 commandments exist before then. Like when did taking God's name in vain start being a sin, or when did lying and stealing start being a sin?
I think the answer you're looking for is in Romans 5Lets try to have a respectable discussion.
So we know that God gave the 10 commandments to Moses on Mt. Sinai. My question is, did the 10 commandments exist before then. Like when did taking God's name in vain start being a sin, or when did lying and stealing start being a sin?
The law started when God placed it on the Hebrews. Before that, faith was the law.Lets try to have a respectable discussion.
So we know that God gave the 10 commandments to Moses on Mt. Sinai. My question is, did the 10 commandments exist before then. Like when did taking God's name in vain start being a sin, or when did lying and stealing start being a sin?
Romans 5
12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam’s transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
The law started when God placed it on the Hebrews. Before that, faith was the law.
Well yes but I just don't really agree that the ten commandments would have been an addition to the knowledge of right and wrong that God naturally imparts to man based on this scripture.Did you agree with my quote in Romans 1?
Lets talk about verse 13 because its interested. I looked it up in different version just as a comparison.
Romans 5:13
(ASV) for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
(BBE) Because, till the law came, sin was in existence, but sin is not put to the account of anyone when there is no law to be broken.
(CEV) Sin was in the world before the Law came. But no record of sin was kept, because there was no Law.
(ERV) Sin was in the world before the Law of Moses. But God does not consider people guilty of sin if there is no law.
(ESV) for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
(ESV+) for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but R24sin is not counted where there is no law.
(ISV) Certainly sin was in the world before the Law was given, but no record of sin is kept when there is no Law.
Also verse 20 is important too.
Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
At face value it seems like Paul is saying here that in the beginning there was no law but there was sin and so in order for God to be able to hold man accountable he had to give the law. But the problem I have with that is, how can there be sin if there is not some kind of law that is being violated? Could it be that Paul just meant that God had to give the law in a written form because God did hold Cain accountable for killing his brother. He destroyed the people in the days of Noah so he held them accountable too. He destroyed the nations of Sodom and Gomorrah. So before Moses was given the law and wrote the law we do see God holding people accountable. So what do you believe Paul to be saying because I can't see how there is sin without any type of law in existence.
Romans 5
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Maybe it was a universal contract of some sort between the Creator and the angels, which did not apply to humans until later.
Are we going to ignore this clear reference to Law before the ten commandments?
"Abraham obeyed Me and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes and My laws.”
Gen 26:5
Abraham paid tithe to Melchizedek. This is considered to be a greater Priesthood then the Leviticus priesthood. Adam and Abraham had a covenant with God but the Law was not given until Moses.So we know that God gave the 10 commandments to Moses on Mt. Sinai.
Sin basically means to miss the mark.Lets talk about verse 13 because its interested. I looked it up in different version just as a comparison.
Romans 5:13
(ASV) for until the law sin was in the world; but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
(BBE) Because, till the law came, sin was in existence, but sin is not put to the account of anyone when there is no law to be broken.
(CEV) Sin was in the world before the Law came. But no record of sin was kept, because there was no Law.
(ERV) Sin was in the world before the Law of Moses. But God does not consider people guilty of sin if there is no law.
(ESV) for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
(ESV+) for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but R24sin is not counted where there is no law.
(ISV) Certainly sin was in the world before the Law was given, but no record of sin is kept when there is no Law.
Also verse 20 is important too.
Rom 5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
At face value it seems like Paul is saying here that in the beginning there was no law but there was sin and so in order for God to be able to hold man accountable he had to give the law. But the problem I have with that is, how can there be sin if there is not some kind of law that is being violated? Could it be that Paul just meant that God had to give the law in a written form because God did hold Cain accountable for killing his brother. He destroyed the people in the days of Noah so he held them accountable too. He destroyed the nations of Sodom and Gomorrah. So before Moses was given the law and wrote the law we do see God holding people accountable. So what do you believe Paul to be saying because I can't see how there is sin without any type of law in existence.