I've looked at the various headings and don't know if this is the appropriate one in which to post, but I've selected this as seeming relevant.
I have a rocky history in Christianity and the Bible - I was not brought up in a religious household and encountered the Bible at about 26 years old. My "introducers" were member of "The Way" ministry - a Unitarian group. Throughout the years (I'm now 60), a big issue has been the Trinitarian/ Unitarian disagreement.
One specific element of this is the "I AM" passages. Trinitarians tend to cite the OT Ex. 3:14 instance and Jesus' Abraham reference.
However, I've read the Greek Septuagint version of Ex. 3:14 and am confused. It seems to me that the Ex. 3:14 verse says (slightly para-phrasing) "I am the (one/ being). Tell the sons of Israel 'The (one/ being) has sent you'" - not "I am has sent you". I'd be interested in hearing others' views on this subject.
Andrew.
I have a rocky history in Christianity and the Bible - I was not brought up in a religious household and encountered the Bible at about 26 years old. My "introducers" were member of "The Way" ministry - a Unitarian group. Throughout the years (I'm now 60), a big issue has been the Trinitarian/ Unitarian disagreement.
One specific element of this is the "I AM" passages. Trinitarians tend to cite the OT Ex. 3:14 instance and Jesus' Abraham reference.
However, I've read the Greek Septuagint version of Ex. 3:14 and am confused. It seems to me that the Ex. 3:14 verse says (slightly para-phrasing) "I am the (one/ being). Tell the sons of Israel 'The (one/ being) has sent you'" - not "I am has sent you". I'd be interested in hearing others' views on this subject.
Andrew.