Isaiah 40:22 -- "Globe of the Earth"

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Translating Psalm 19:4; Rom.10:18 -- Latin, English, Greek & Hebrew.

Psalm 19:4 is a spiritual analogy to capture the light of Christ Who's words of eternal salvation will reach a multitude all over the globe. While the Psalm speaks in a deeply spiritual language, it does firmly establish the sun as stationary before going deep into the analogy of how the light of the sun makes it way from one end of the earth to the other.

Romans 10:18 quotes Psalm 19:4 so there will be Greek to examine. The only downside to this verse is that for some odd unknown reason William Tyndale did not translate this verse "round world" as in the case of other verses that use têbêl. However, the lexicons strongly support the global meaning here. So first we will examine the only English translation that translates têbêl in the global sense.

English: "Their line went forth into all the earth, and their words into the ends of the habitable globe. In them he set a tent for the sun" (1876 Julia E. Smith Bible).
The two Hebrew words used here are H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl & H776 אֶרֶץ ʼerets.

____________________________________________________________
† St.Jerome's Latin Vulgate:

In the Latin Vulgate Psalm 19:4 is Psalm 18:5,

"in omnem terram exivit sonus eorum et in fines orbis terrae verba eorum."

Latin Definition of orbis terrae
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...Ie6PhoG6f1yknJ9rmUTIaMNEU80Z2F8G9IAm-z38VRTX8

Latin Definition of orbis terrarum
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...RQNeQh8WpWYTyi_dml4jqHzzxEuh_AU-1GRQOd2yFcZqg

How to say "world globe" in Latin
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...51tEQ8E8TygDKDZvbqksAfP8znBtC4WZKlapqY9GPYkw0
There is no doubt that orbis terrae means "world globe."
______________________________________________________________
Hebrew Lexicons for H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl,

✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible.

"8398. têbêl, tay-bale'; from H2986; the earth (as moist and therefore inhabited); by extension, the globe; by implication, its inhabitants; specifically, a particular land, as Babylonia, Palestine:—world [35x] habitable part, [1x].
The word signified, first, the solid material on which man dwells, and that was formed, founded, established, and disposed by God; and secondly, the inhabitants thereof. See TWOT 835h; BDB--385c, 1061d."


✅ Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon
46503575_10161103243135223_6829675694939701248_n.jpg


✅Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament.

TWOT 835h תֵּבֵל têbêl, tay-bale'; world.

"This noun is used in three basic situations. First, the noun is employed to represent the global mass called earth, including the atmosphere or heavens (cf. Ps.89:12; II Sam 22:16; et al.). têbêl is often in parallelism or apposition with 'eres (I Sam 2:8; Isa.26:9; 34:1; et al.) when 'eres is used in its broadest sense of "the world." The "world" was created by God, not false gods (Jer.10:12; Ps.93:1) and it belongs solely to him (Ps.24:1). God's eternality is illustrated by his existence before the creation of "world" (Ps.90:2) and his wisdom (perhaps a personification of Christ) was present prior to the world's creation (Prov. 8:26, 31). Creation itself gives a "worldwide" witness to God's glory (Ps.19:4 [H 5]) which should result in Yahweh's praise (Ps.98:2). Yahweh will judge this "world," making it empty (Isa.24:4), though in the millennium God will cause Israel to blossom and fill the whole world with her fruit (Isa.27:6).

Second, têbêl is sometime limited to "countries" or "the inhabitable world." This meaning is more closely related to the root meaning. It refers to the world where crops are raised. This is observed in the judgment message against the king of Babylon (not Satan) for violently shaking the "world" or "inhabitable world" (Isa.13:11; 14:17). Lightning is said to enlighten the "world"---undoubtedly referring to a limited land area (Ps.77:18 [H 19]; 97:4).

Third, têbêl may also refer to the inhabitants living upon the whole earth. This is demonstrated by the parallelism of têbêl with I' umim (Ps.9:8 [H 9]) and 'ammim (Ps.96:13; 98:9). The context of these references is Yahweh's judgment upon the world's inhabitants---a judgment both executed in righteousness and instructive of Yahweh's righteousness (Isa.26:9; 34:1).

In several passages the sense of têbêl as the globular earth in combination with its inhabitants is clearly observed. Everything belongs to Yahweh as his creation (Ps.50:12). Yahweh alone controls this world (Job 34:13; Nah 1:5) and his power is over all the earth which always responds to his presence (Job 37:12; Ps.97:4)".


✅New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology & Exegesis, Volume 4:

"9315. têbêl תֵּבֵל Nom. fem., world (#9315).

OT Found 36x exclusively in poetic texts, the word conveys the cosmic or global sense in which 'eres is also sometimes used; i.e., the whole earth or world considered as a single entity. It sometimes occurs in parallelism with 'eres (Jer.10:12; Lam.4:12). Twice it is used together with 'eres, either to express "the whole earth" (Job 37:12), or perhaps in the sense of the inhabited earth (Prov.8:31). It is used frequently in contexts that associate it with Yahweh's creative act and that, as a result, express the stability or durability of the earth (1 Sam.2:8; Ps.89:11 [12]; 93:1; 96:10). It is used when the whole population of the world is referred to (Ps.24:1; 33:8; 98:7; Isa. 18:3; 26:9; Nah.1:5). Isaiah uses têbêl more than any other prophet, mostly in the context of universal judgment (Isaiah 13:11; 24:4; 34:1; cf. Ps.96:13; 98:9).

Land, earth: --> damd (ground, piece of land, soil, realm of the earth, #141); --> 'eres (earth, land, #824); --> têbêl (world, #9315)."

_________________________________________________________________
Summary of Hebrew Lexicons on H8398: תֵּבֵל têbêl,

✅Strong's: "; by extension, the globe;"

✅Gesenius': ",the habitable globe,"

✅TWOT: "First, the noun is employed to represent the global mass called earth" <--AND -->"In several passages the sense of têbêl as the globular earth in combination with its inhabitants is clearly observed."

✅New International: "the word conveys the cosmic or global sense in which 'eres is also sometimes used; i.e., the whole earth or world considered as a single entity."

According to everything I can find on how têbêl is contextually applied, the 1876 Julia Smith Bible gets it right. I do not consider the Julia Smith Bible a better translation than the Matthew's Bible, but she did well with Psalm 19:4 as both the Hebrew and Latin agree, as well as the context of Psalm 19.
But this is not the end of our analysis of Psalm 19:4. Fortunately we have Romans 10:18 to double-check the verse in Latin and Greek.
_____________________________________________________________
Romans 10:18 quotes Psalm 19:4

English: "But I say, Have they not heard? Surely, in all the earth went out their sound, and their words to the end of the habitable globe" (1876 Julia Smith Bible).

The first clause: "But I say, Have they not heard?" alludes to Isaiah 40:21,

"Have ye not known? have ye not heard? hath it not been told you from the beginning? have ye not understood from the foundations of the earth?"

The second clause follows the first clause of Isaiah 40:21 but quotes from Psalm 19:4 instead of Isaiah 40:22.

There are two Greek words in this Romans 10:18 which are translated from the Hebrew H776 אֶרֶץ ʼerets & H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl. There words are G1093 γῆ gē, ghay & G3625 οἰκουμένη oikouménē.

The word oikouménē is the Greek equivalent to the Hebrew têbêl

✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible, G1093 γῆ gē,

"γῆ gē, ghay; contracted from a primary word; soil; by extension a region, or the solid part or the whole of the terrene globe (including the occupants in each application):—country, earth(-ly), ground, land, world."
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)


✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible, G3625 οἰκουμένη oikouménē

"οἰκουμένη oikouménē, oy-kou-men'-ay; feminine participle present passive of G3611 (as noun, by implication, of G1093); land, i.e. the (terrene part of the) globe; specially, the Roman empire:—earth, world."
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)

The terrene part of the globe is inhabited ("the habitable globe").


Both words here are applicable to globe given the right context. But how does the Greek translate into Latin?

Latin Vulgate: "sed dico numquid non audierunt et quidem in omnem terram exiit sonus eorum et in fines orbis terrae verba eorum"

We do see the words "orbis terrae" which means "world globe."

Latin Definition of orbis terrae
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...XJkoCVdzM19E2gnaqdKCKOBaRjathhqmyUqQ3BO_cZw8Q

Latin Definition of orbis terrarum,
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t..._ayTNg7UBlSeXu6Ke_xgtH66oexghRJsN5ruDagGuilnc

How to say "world globe" in Latin
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...rgu_sOBMFM2t_HC8N_C5FeXI4S5_LJvB8YT4PgpzGqUTE

Here again its clear that Psalm 19:4 carries the globular meaning.
NT3.jpg
 
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Speedwell

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After all this time you still haven't made your point.

So let us agree, arguendo, that the Bible unequivocally teaches a spherical Earth, and taught it before any scientists figured it out on their own.

Now what? You see, it would be much easier to follow your voluminous postings f we knew what your conclusion was going to be.
 
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Strathos

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After all this time you still haven't made your point.

So let us agree, arguendo, that the Bible unequivocally teaches a spherical Earth, and taught it before any scientists figured it out on their own.

Now what? You see, it would be much easier to follow your voluminous postings f we knew what your conclusion was going to be.

I think the conclusion is - flat earthers are wrong, and should stop embarrassing us.
 
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FEZZILLA

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After all this time you still haven't made your point.

So let us agree, arguendo, that the Bible unequivocally teaches a spherical Earth, and taught it before any scientists figured it out on their own.

Now what? You see, it would be much easier to follow your voluminous postings f we knew what your conclusion was going to be.
The conclusion is very simple. My last post on Psalm 19:4 & Romans 10:18 demonstrates the unbroken chain of definitions which all go back to the ancient Hebrew and from there the Greek and Latin. I find it amazing how the Apostle Paul begins to quote Isaiah 40:21 -- "Have ye not heard?" and follows it up with Psalm 19:4 instead of Isaiah 40:22!

Flat earthers are very clearly in the wrong. The Bible is the oldest document which records the round, globular shape of the earth, proving that the word of God is more inspired than the word of science. And I am far from the anti-science type of person. I just don't place science on above the Holy Bible. Atheists have long mocked the Bible for supposedly teaching flat earth. And yet the atheists are proven wrong time and time again.

If atheists can understand the shape of the earth in the Bible (being a globe). then how can we trust then in science?
 
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lasthero

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The Bible is the oldest document which records the round, globular shape of the earth,

That’s not true.

If atheists can understand the shape of the earth in the Bible (being a globe). then how can we trust then in science?

Okay, seriously, is there any problem in your worldview that isn’t somehow linked to atheists?
 
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Speedwell

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The conclusion is very simple. My last post on Psalm 19:4 & Romans 10:18 demonstrates the unbroken chain of definitions which all go back to the ancient Hebrew and from there the Greek and Latin. I find it amazing how the Apostle Paul begins to quote Isaiah 40:21 -- "Have ye not heard?" and follows it up with Psalm 19:4 instead of Isaiah 40:22!

Flat earthers are very clearly in the wrong. The Bible is the oldest document which records the round, globular shape of the earth, proving that the word of God is more inspired than the word of science. And I am far from the anti-science type of person. I just don't place science on above the Holy Bible. Atheists have long mocked the Bible for supposedly teaching flat earth. And yet the atheists are proven wrong time and time again.

If atheists can understand the shape of the earth in the Bible (being a globe). then how can we trust then in science?
No, atheists have long mocked flat-Earthers for believing in a flat Earth. They do not, as a rule, believe that the Bible teaches anything at all about the shape of the Earth. The mocking is directed towards beliefs about the Bible, not the Bible itself.

I don't believe myself that the Bible teaches anything about the shape of the Earth. It may be possible to conclude by close examination of the text that some of the authors believed the Earth is a sphere, but any statements which can be so construed are phenomenological language not material to the content. That is not the same as the Bible actually teaching it.
 
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lasthero

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No, atheists have long mocked flat-Earthers for believing in a flat Earth. They do not, as a rule, believe that the Bible teaches anything at all about the shape of the Earth. The mocking is directed towards beliefs about the Bible, not the Bible itself.

I don't believe myself that the Bible teaches anything about the shape of the Earth. It may be possible to conclude by close examination of the text that some of the authors believed the Earth is a sphere, but any statements which can be so construed are phenomenological language not material to the content. That is not the same as the Bible actually teaching it.

I just realized something - saying that the people who wrote the Bible couldn’t have known the Earth was round carries with it the implication that they’re weren’t smart enough to figure out what the Greeks did around that same time.

If the Greeks figured this out by themselves around the same time, with no divine guidance, why is it a stretch to to think other cultures did the same? That they had the same knowledge?
 
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Speedwell

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I just realized something - saying that the people who wrote the Bible couldn’t have known the Earth was round carries with it the implication that they’re weren’t smart enough to figure out what the Greeks did around that same time.

If the Greeks figured this out by themselves around the same time, with no divine guidance, why is it a stretch to to think other cultures did the same? That they had the same knowledge?
Keep in mind that creationists date the entirety of the Book of Isaiah to the 8th century BC and don't recognize Deutero-Isaiah as a separate, later text with a different author (and containing the key passage, Is 40:22) written in the 5th century--after the Greeks had begun to figure it out.
 
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FEZZILLA

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No, atheists have long mocked flat-Earthers for believing in a flat Earth. They do not, as a rule, believe that the Bible teaches anything at all about the shape of the Earth. The mocking is directed towards beliefs about the Bible, not the Bible itself.

I don't believe myself that the Bible teaches anything about the shape of the Earth. It may be possible to conclude by close examination of the text that some of the authors believed the Earth is a sphere, but any statements which can be so construed are phenomenological language not material to the content. That is not the same as the Bible actually teaching it.
Wrong. Even on this forum atheists claim the Bible teaches flat earth. I joined this forum back in 2003 and atheists then and now claim the Bible teaches flat earth. They see the word "circle" in Isaiah 40:22 and claim its a 2D circle. But an in depth analysis proves that Isaiah 40:22, along with some 30 other verses, teach globe earth...as understood by the ancient church that atheists claim were all flat earthers. I've debated atheists for 16 years and one of the most well debated issues has always been the shape of the earth in the Bible. But thanks to the flat earth movement, all that skepticism is now well refuted. For had it not been for the flat earth movement, I would have never dug this deep in the Bible to answer skepticism on the Bible. Though since the flat earth movement was very forceful in how they pushed their Biblical skepticism on social media, I dropped everything I was doing to research the issue. And for what its worth, my time in research was time well spent. Not only was I able to solve the matter, but I also learned so many things I never knew before I did the research. It was all very rewarding and I'll never regret taking the time to investigate the matter as thoroughly as I did.
 
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Speedwell

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Wrong. Even on this forum atheists claim the Bible teaches flat earth. I joined this forum back in 2003 and atheists then and now claim the Bible teaches flat earth. They see the word "circle" in Isaiah 40:22 and claim its a 2D circle. But an in depth analysis proves that Isaiah 40:22, along with some 30 other verses, teach globe earth...as understood by the ancient church that atheists claim were all flat earthers. I've debated atheists for 16 years and one of the most well debated issues has always been the shape of the earth in the Bible. But thanks to the flat earth movement, all that skepticism is now well refuted. For had it not been for the flat earth movement, I would have never dug this deep in the Bible to answer skepticism on the Bible. Though since the flat earth movement was very forceful in how they pushed their Biblical skepticism on social media, I dropped everything I was doing to research the issue. And for what its worth, my time in research was time well spent. Not only was I able to solve the matter, but I also learned so many things I never knew before I did the research. It was all very rewarding and I'll never regret taking the time to investigate the matter as thoroughly as I did.
Oh, debate. I thought you were talking about mockery.
 
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FEZZILLA

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Oh, debate. I thought you were talking about mockery.
Why is it you resort to manipulation? If you have to manipulate someone's words in a discussion it means you lost the the entire debate. Atheists have always mocked the Bible, accusing it of teaching flat earth, accusing the entire history of the church as being flat earthers when no such history is found. This new claim that atheists only claimed that the Bible says nothing about the shape of the earth is not the position I've seen from atheists in the last 16 years. Even now, on social media, atheists are saying the Bible teaches flat earth. So your position is one I've never encountered before as it is not the position atheists hold. And to claim the Bible doesn't mention the shape of the earth begs the question of what a circle means in Isaiah 40:22? Certainly "the circle of the earth" is a clear elementary reference to the earth's shape. The earth is circular.
earth.jpg
 
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Speedwell

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Why is it you resort to manipulation? If you have to manipulate someone's words in a discussion it means you lost the the entire debate. Atheists have always mocked the Bible, accusing it of teaching flat earth, accusing the entire history of the church as being flat earthers when no such history is found. This new claim that atheists only claimed that the Bible says nothing about the shape of the earth is not the position I've seen from atheists in the last 16 years. Even now, on social media, atheists are saying the Bible teaches flat earth. So your position is one I've never encountered before as it is not the position atheists hold. And to claim the Bible doesn't mention the shape of the earth begs the question of what a circle means in Isaiah 40:22? Certainly "the circle of the earth" is a clear elementary reference to the earth's shape. The earth is circular.
Now who's manipulating? I did not claim that the Bible doesn't mention the shape of the Earth. I said the Bible doesn't teach it.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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Have you heard of reductio ad absurdum? That is what atheists are trying to do to biblical literalist Christians with the flat Earth thing.
In my experience, atheists don't care what the bible says about the shape of the Earth any more than what the Harry Potter books say about it - but will comment on it in respect of it being used to support counterfactual assertions about the world.
 
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Translating Psalm 19:4; Rom.10:18 -- Latin, English, Greek & Hebrew.

Psalm 19:4 is a spiritual analogy to capture the light of Christ Who's words of eternal salvation will reach a multitude all over the globe. While the Psalm speaks in a deeply spiritual language, it does firmly establish the sun as stationary before going deep into the analogy of how the light of the sun makes it way from one end of the earth to the other.

Romans 10:18 quotes Psalm 19:4 so there will be Greek to examine. The only downside to this verse is that for some odd unknown reason William Tyndale did not translate this verse "round world" as in the case of other verses that use têbêl. However, the lexicons strongly support the global meaning here. So first we will examine the only English translation that translates têbêl in the global sense.

English: "Their line went forth into all the earth, and their words into the ends of the habitable globe. In them he set a tent for the sun" (1876 Julia E. Smith Bible).
The two Hebrew words used here are H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl & H776 אֶרֶץ ʼerets.

____________________________________________________________
† St.Jerome's Latin Vulgate:

In the Latin Vulgate Psalm 19:4 is Psalm 18:5,

"in omnem terram exivit sonus eorum et in fines orbis terrae verba eorum."

Latin Definition of orbis terrae
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...Ie6PhoG6f1yknJ9rmUTIaMNEU80Z2F8G9IAm-z38VRTX8

Latin Definition of orbis terrarum
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...RQNeQh8WpWYTyi_dml4jqHzzxEuh_AU-1GRQOd2yFcZqg

How to say "world globe" in Latin
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...51tEQ8E8TygDKDZvbqksAfP8znBtC4WZKlapqY9GPYkw0
There is no doubt that orbis terrae means "world globe."
______________________________________________________________
Hebrew Lexicons for H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl,

✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible.

"8398. têbêl, tay-bale'; from H2986; the earth (as moist and therefore inhabited); by extension, the globe; by implication, its inhabitants; specifically, a particular land, as Babylonia, Palestine:—world [35x] habitable part, [1x].
The word signified, first, the solid material on which man dwells, and that was formed, founded, established, and disposed by God; and secondly, the inhabitants thereof. See TWOT 835h; BDB--385c, 1061d."


✅ Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon
View attachment 252137

✅Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament.

TWOT 835h תֵּבֵל têbêl, tay-bale'; world.

"This noun is used in three basic situations. First, the noun is employed to represent the global mass called earth, including the atmosphere or heavens (cf. Ps.89:12; II Sam 22:16; et al.). têbêl is often in parallelism or apposition with 'eres (I Sam 2:8; Isa.26:9; 34:1; et al.) when 'eres is used in its broadest sense of "the world." The "world" was created by God, not false gods (Jer.10:12; Ps.93:1) and it belongs solely to him (Ps.24:1). God's eternality is illustrated by his existence before the creation of "world" (Ps.90:2) and his wisdom (perhaps a personification of Christ) was present prior to the world's creation (Prov. 8:26, 31). Creation itself gives a "worldwide" witness to God's glory (Ps.19:4 [H 5]) which should result in Yahweh's praise (Ps.98:2). Yahweh will judge this "world," making it empty (Isa.24:4), though in the millennium God will cause Israel to blossom and fill the whole world with her fruit (Isa.27:6).

Second, têbêl is sometime limited to "countries" or "the inhabitable world." This meaning is more closely related to the root meaning. It refers to the world where crops are raised. This is observed in the judgment message against the king of Babylon (not Satan) for violently shaking the "world" or "inhabitable world" (Isa.13:11; 14:17). Lightning is said to enlighten the "world"---undoubtedly referring to a limited land area (Ps.77:18 [H 19]; 97:4).

Third, têbêl may also refer to the inhabitants living upon the whole earth. This is demonstrated by the parallelism of têbêl with I' umim (Ps.9:8 [H 9]) and 'ammim (Ps.96:13; 98:9). The context of these references is Yahweh's judgment upon the world's inhabitants---a judgment both executed in righteousness and instructive of Yahweh's righteousness (Isa.26:9; 34:1).

In several passages the sense of têbêl as the globular earth in combination with its inhabitants is clearly observed. Everything belongs to Yahweh as his creation (Ps.50:12). Yahweh alone controls this world (Job 34:13; Nah 1:5) and his power is over all the earth which always responds to his presence (Job 37:12; Ps.97:4)".


✅New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology & Exegesis, Volume 4:

"9315. têbêl תֵּבֵל Nom. fem., world (#9315).

OT Found 36x exclusively in poetic texts, the word conveys the cosmic or global sense in which 'eres is also sometimes used; i.e., the whole earth or world considered as a single entity. It sometimes occurs in parallelism with 'eres (Jer.10:12; Lam.4:12). Twice it is used together with 'eres, either to express "the whole earth" (Job 37:12), or perhaps in the sense of the inhabited earth (Prov.8:31). It is used frequently in contexts that associate it with Yahweh's creative act and that, as a result, express the stability or durability of the earth (1 Sam.2:8; Ps.89:11 [12]; 93:1; 96:10). It is used when the whole population of the world is referred to (Ps.24:1; 33:8; 98:7; Isa. 18:3; 26:9; Nah.1:5). Isaiah uses têbêl more than any other prophet, mostly in the context of universal judgment (Isaiah 13:11; 24:4; 34:1; cf. Ps.96:13; 98:9).

Land, earth: --> damd (ground, piece of land, soil, realm of the earth, #141); --> 'eres (earth, land, #824); --> têbêl (world, #9315)."

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Summary of Hebrew Lexicons on H8398: תֵּבֵל têbêl,

✅Strong's: "; by extension, the globe;"

✅Gesenius': ",the habitable globe,"

✅TWOT: "First, the noun is employed to represent the global mass called earth" <--AND -->"In several passages the sense of têbêl as the globular earth in combination with its inhabitants is clearly observed."

✅New International: "the word conveys the cosmic or global sense in which 'eres is also sometimes used; i.e., the whole earth or world considered as a single entity."

According to everything I can find on how têbêl is contextually applied, the 1876 Julia Smith Bible gets it right. I do not consider the Julia Smith Bible a better translation than the Matthew's Bible, but she did well with Psalm 19:4 as both the Hebrew and Latin agree, as well as the context of Psalm 19.
But this is not the end of our analysis of Psalm 19:4. Fortunately we have Romans 10:18 to double-check the verse in Latin and Greek.
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Romans 10:18 quotes Psalm 19:4

English: "But I say, Have they not heard? Surely, in all the earth went out their sound, and their words to the end of the habitable globe" (1876 Julia Smith Bible).

The first clause: "But I say, Have they not heard?" alludes to Isaiah 40:21,

"Have ye not known? have ye not heard? hath it not been told you from the beginning? have ye not understood from the foundations of the earth?"

The second clause follows the first clause of Isaiah 40:21 but quotes from Psalm 19:4 instead of Isaiah 40:22.

There are two Greek words in this Romans 10:18 which are translated from the Hebrew H776 אֶרֶץ ʼerets & H8398 תֵּבֵל têbêl. There words are G1093 γῆ gē, ghay & G3625 οἰκουμένη oikouménē.

The word oikouménē is the Greek equivalent to the Hebrew têbêl

✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible, G1093 γῆ gē,

"γῆ gē, ghay; contracted from a primary word; soil; by extension a region, or the solid part or the whole of the terrene globe (including the occupants in each application):—country, earth(-ly), ground, land, world."
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)


✅The New Strong's Exhaustive Expanded Concordance of the Bible, G3625 οἰκουμένη oikouménē

"οἰκουμένη oikouménē, oy-kou-men'-ay; feminine participle present passive of G3611 (as noun, by implication, of G1093); land, i.e. the (terrene part of the) globe; specially, the Roman empire:—earth, world."
Genesis 1:1 (KJV)

The terrene part of the globe is inhabited ("the habitable globe").


Both words here are applicable to globe given the right context. But how does the Greek translate into Latin?

Latin Vulgate: "sed dico numquid non audierunt et quidem in omnem terram exiit sonus eorum et in fines orbis terrae verba eorum"

We do see the words "orbis terrae" which means "world globe."

Latin Definition of orbis terrae
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...XJkoCVdzM19E2gnaqdKCKOBaRjathhqmyUqQ3BO_cZw8Q

Latin Definition of orbis terrarum,
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t..._ayTNg7UBlSeXu6Ke_xgtH66oexghRJsN5ruDagGuilnc

How to say "world globe" in Latin
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/t...rgu_sOBMFM2t_HC8N_C5FeXI4S5_LJvB8YT4PgpzGqUTE

Here again its clear that Psalm 19:4 carries the globular meaning.
View attachment 252139


You don't seem to realise that the meaning of a word changes over time. When you want to find out what the author meant by a word in an ancient text you should look further than a definition in a much later lexicon. You must consider the etymology and semantics of the word. It is not likely that an ancient hebrew would use the meaning of the word têbêl as a modern lexicon defines it.
 
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