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Dispensationalist Only OT and NT usage of "Last Days"

food4thought

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I did a quick search of the New American Standard Bible for the phrase "last days", and now I am confused. In the OT it seems to be used at least mostly of the Millennial Kingdom (Isaiah 2:2; Jeremiah 49:39; Micah 4:1), but in the NT it seems to be used specifically of the Church Age (Acts 2:17; Hebrews 1:2; James 5:3).

Can you guys please help me sort this out... I am currently in a discussion with a Partial Preterist in the eschatology forum, so the sooner the better.

Thanks in advance;
Michael
 
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food4thought

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Take a look at how it is used in Joel 2 and how it is fulfilled in Acts 2.

Joel 2 does not mention the "last days", it only says "afterward" (even the LXX). Peter interpreted it to mean the "last days", so that is definitely what it was referring to. But I don't see how this helps me sort out Isaiah 2:2, Jeremiah 49:39, and Micah 4:1. What am I missing, Dave-W?
 
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Dave-W

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What those verses refer to is the return of ethnic Israel to God in the New Covenant.

It is happening now. Even a few prominent Rabbis in Israel have started wondering if Jesus was the Messiah after all, and that Judaism and Christianity will one day merge.
 
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food4thought

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What those verses refer to is the return of ethnic Israel to God in the New Covenant.

It is happening now. Even a few prominent Rabbis in Israel have started wondering if Jesus was the Messiah after all, and that Judaism and Christianity will one day merge.

So you see the ascension of Israel to world power and their return to the Lord as being in the church age? Never heard that before... Israel's return to God is generally seen as happening during the tribulation, and their ascension as a nation is seen as occurring during the Millennium.
 
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Dave-W

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I don’t see that clear of a hard mark between the ages; they tend to bleed over into the next one.

That would mean “last days” would include both the church age and the trib, and maybe even go into the millennium for a time.
 
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