- Jan 31, 2006
- 44,350
- 14,508
- Country
- Canada
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Private
I have heard from some that the curse from Adam's time has been completely removed only for Gentile men.
I don't understand their semantics to back up their statements. Can this be discussed using scripture for and against the argument please.
Examples would be from @Dave-W (posted below) and I think I also heard @RDKirk expressing the same semantic, if they could contribute to the thread would be appreciated.
Myself I don't believe there is a difference between Jew, Gentile, slave, free, women or men in the accomplishments of Christ because that simply was the point of His mission was to make whole the body. I believe Paul used metaphors that people don't get past to find the truth. But I find that the metaphors are used as truth that I believe are really a lie are being propagated.
I prefer to stay out of that debate and would just like to hear the semantics it's coming from. Thanks
Why do some women contribute to their own oppression?
↑
I thought that curse was reversed at the cross?
Not “reversed,” but partly nullified. The full nullification will not occur until the very end, when we no longer have to deal with sickness or death.
Hannah's prayer
↑
Good point. Do you believe that when Paul vowed that he was treading the line between old and new?
Not really. It boils down to the issue brought up at the First Jerusalem council in Acts 15 - which exempted GENTILE converts from following the Law of Moses. It did NOT include Jews who came to faith in Messiah. They still had (and HAVE) to follow the Law in a New Covenant way. .......
If that were true why would Gentile women still be inclusive. Makes no sense.
I don't understand their semantics to back up their statements. Can this be discussed using scripture for and against the argument please.
Examples would be from @Dave-W (posted below) and I think I also heard @RDKirk expressing the same semantic, if they could contribute to the thread would be appreciated.
Myself I don't believe there is a difference between Jew, Gentile, slave, free, women or men in the accomplishments of Christ because that simply was the point of His mission was to make whole the body. I believe Paul used metaphors that people don't get past to find the truth. But I find that the metaphors are used as truth that I believe are really a lie are being propagated.
I prefer to stay out of that debate and would just like to hear the semantics it's coming from. Thanks
Why do some women contribute to their own oppression?
↑
I thought that curse was reversed at the cross?
Not “reversed,” but partly nullified. The full nullification will not occur until the very end, when we no longer have to deal with sickness or death.
Hannah's prayer
↑
Good point. Do you believe that when Paul vowed that he was treading the line between old and new?
Not really. It boils down to the issue brought up at the First Jerusalem council in Acts 15 - which exempted GENTILE converts from following the Law of Moses. It did NOT include Jews who came to faith in Messiah. They still had (and HAVE) to follow the Law in a New Covenant way. .......
If that were true why would Gentile women still be inclusive. Makes no sense.
Last edited: