You managed to avoid explaining how an unbeliever can use the name of Jesus to cast out demons and do the supernatural all in Jesus' name. That is problematic for your position. Also Jesus plainly stated that he commanded them to depart not because the were unbelievers but because they practiced inequity - in other words they were disobedient which is perfectly consistent with Heb 5:9. While a true believer is not a worker of inequity, those true believers who subsequently succumb to the practice of inequity are no longer believers/saved and therein lies the difference that you fail to account for.
Simply that there is power in the name of Jesus whether it is invoked by a believer or an unbeliever.
Don't those true believers in 1 Tim 4:1 cease to believe? Yes or no? The verse plainly states that they will fall away/depart from the faith. It is impossible for those who are not true believers to depart from something they were never a part of. Your explanation does not bear up to the scrutiny of this verse as it states that believers will cease to believe and instead follow deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons.
As I said before, the people in 1 Timothy 4:1 were not true believers. They are a part of the visible church and therefore are considered to be in the faith because of church attendance and certain outward behaviours; but an inward faith is absent; they were not of the true church (see 1 John 2:19).
Not tricky at all. Who is the "Him" in this verse? Is it not Jesus? So if we are not obeying Jesus, we don't have eternal salvation. Plain and simple; very easy to understand that even a child can understand it. Eternal life is given to those who are obeying Jesus. Only true believers are capable of obeying Jesus in the first place. Those believers who of their own volition stray and disobey Jesus are no longer saved.
Then salvation is of works, contrary to Ephesians 2:9 and context. Also: in context, Hebrews 5:9 is speaking of obedience to Melchizedec. But even if it is speaking of obedience to Jesus, as does Acts of the Apostles 5:32, the wording of these scriptures allows for the interpretation that those who have a living faith in Jesus will continue to obey God; not that they must continue to obey God in order to maintain their salvation. And this is more consistent with the rest of what the scripture teaches.
Unfortunately, your references do not support your belief. 1 Jn 4:4 refers to those who have OVERCOME. Do you think this verse refers to anyone who practices sin/inequity as an overcomer? I doubt it and think you have misappropriated this verse. We overcome when we remain obedient. On the other hand, when we fail to remain obedient we give the devil a foothold (Eph 4:26-27).
You also wholly misappropriate Mk 3:27. This verse talks about Satan's kingdom- not God's temple (our bodies) in which the Holy Spirit dwells. Do you deny that Satan gains a foothold when a believer holds on to anger according to Eph 4:27? Do you deny that Jesus referred to Peter as "get behind me Satan" in Matt 16:23? Do you deny that Satan entered Judas in Lk 22:3?
Of course my position is that a true believer is not a worker of iniquity and
is an overcomer. He that dwells in the true believer is greater than any demon or satan. And the principle in Mark 3:27 is that in order to invade a home, one must be stronger than the one dwelling in it already. If Jesus, even the Holy Spirit, is dwelling in the house of my body, He is a Strongman that must be overcome of the demons or satan if they want to enter and dwell there. And He is also greater than any of them. And of course if demons or satan are dwelling there, then Jesus is stringer and when He comes to invade that person's life, the demons or satan have to get out. It goes along with what Jesus said elsewhere in context of how a demon goes through dry places seeking rest, and then decides to go back to the place he was dwelling before, finds it empty swept, and garnished, and then goes and takes seven more demons more wicked than himself and goes and dwells there; and Jesus said, He that is not with me is against me: and he that gathereth not with me scattereth (Luke 11:23). The key word to the statement is that the house was empty; Jesus was not dwelling there: and therefore the demon was able to gain entrance. It is the principle in Mark 3:27 that I have referred to, not necessarily what it is talking about in its context.
The Holy Spirit was not yet given when Jesus said, "get thee behind me, satan!" to Peter (John 7:37-39). And Judas was a devil; he was not a true believer from the beginning (John 6:70-71).
Don't believes already have the Spirit indwelling them? They lied to God/Spirit precisely because they were indwelt by the Spirit and had a relationship with God. Unbelievers have no such relationship and cannot lie to God. The told their lie to Peter and to God as the verse reads: "You have not lied just to human beings but to God.” Acts 5:4
I'm saying that because Satan filled their hearts, Ananias and Saphira could not have been true believers. Believers can't be demon-possessed, neither can they be possessed by satan himself.
Based on your premise, he made an example of Ananias & Sapphira who were unbelievers? Why would God make an example of unbelievers? If he were jealous of his holiness who would require true believers to maintain their holiness - not unbelievers who are unable to be holy in the first place. Your rationalization makes no sense.
Ananias and Saphira claimed to believers; and they were claiming to be highly virtuous by their actions in the story. Have you forgotten the story in question? God was saying that He was not going to tolerate hypocrisy like that in the visible church.
No where in this passage is the word "desire." No where in the Greek text is the word equivalent to the English word "desire." You have again added your own word into the text - a dangerous thing to do.
Also you response to whether you sin or not is unclear to me. Can you simply answer - do you sin? A simple yes or no will suffice.
Okay, if you want to go there, then the literal interpretation says that those who are born again cannot sin. I would ask you, do you sin? if you do, then you are not born again according to the literal interpretation (since you seem to be adamant about taking that scripture more literally).
In answer to your questioning that of me, I believe that the answer of "I don't know" is valid (see 1 Corinthians 4:4). But I know that in my own prayer of salvation, I said to God, "My sin is ever before me." (Psalms 51:3).
How can an unbeliever be "in the faith." To apostatize means to depart from the faith. It is impossible for unbelievers to depart from the faith since they were not "in the faith" to begin with. Your explanation is exceedingly weak.
1 Tim 1:19-20 contradicts your view: Holding faith, and a good conscience; which some having put away concerning faith have made shipwreck. Of whom is Hymenaeus and Alexander; whom I have delivered over to Satan, that they may learn not to blaspheme."(kjv: changed by me because I am kjv-superior in my view)
It appears to me that this scripture says that some people have put away a good conscience and have made shipwreck concerning faith. Now Paul handed them over to the devil as a disciplinary action, which had the purpose of hopefully saving their spirit on the day of the Lord (1 Corinthians 5:5). Therefore I consider that anyone who has true faith but makes shipwreck concerning the faith, if they are of the elect of the Lord, when they suffer shipwreck, they become as the prodigal son; and as soon as they see the conditions of what it is like in the pigpen, they will say, "I will return and come back home to my Father." They may be unbelieving while in the pigpen, but this does not change their position as being children of the Most High.
In answer to your question, an unbeliever can be visibly in the faith if he or she is a churchgoer and by all practical purposes appears to be a real Christian by their behaviour; while faith is absent. 1 Timothy 4:1 says that some will depart from "the faith" which refers to the religion of Christianity (while real Christianity is not a religion but a relationship); and because what they have is not relationship but religion, when they depart from it they are not departing from salvation but from an outward form of godliness.
Jn 5:24/Jn 6:47 - the word "believes" is a present tense participle. One must continue believing - not a past moment of belief in order to possess eternal life.
Yes, I believe that.
Jn 10:27-30. Eternal life, not perishing and not being snatched out of the Father's hand is only promised to those sheep who listen and follow the Shepherd. Disobedient sheep are not included.
Yes, I believe that also.
Heb 13:5 You completely ignore the context. God will not forsake us but it also warns to be free from the love of money. The previous verse warns the believer to keep the marriage bed undefiled for God will judge the adulterer and fornicator.
Eternal life is therefore conditional and not unconditional as you assume.
Yes it is conditional; but the only condition is that we have faith in Jesus and what He did for us on the Cross. When we truly have that, we are new creatures in Christ, and everything concerning sanctification will fall into place.
btw, the marriage bed
is undefiled, we do not have to keep it that way; but of course whoremongering and adultery are apart from the marriage bed.
Then why does God judge all the churches in Revelation by their works? Just because we are forgiven, it does not automatically entail that we will forgive. Jesus plainly stated that if we do not forgive others, God will not forgive us. Do you disagree with Jesus?
I'm afraid you're going to have to give me more specific scripture on the first question.
If we are in Christ, we are a new creature; old things are passed away: behold, all things are become new (2 Corinthians 5:17). Therefore, as new creatures in Christ, it is in our nature to forgive. The word of God will not return void. Therefore true believers are obedient to Jesus' commandment to forgive.
No. James 2:24 states we are JUSTIFIED (not sanctified) by WORKS and NOT BY FAITH ALONE. Just what part of that don't you understand?
We are justified by works before man (see Romans 4:2); not before God. Man looks on the outward appearance, but God looks on the heart (1 Samuel 16:7). Romans 4:1-8 shows clearly that from God's perspective, it is not works that justifies us but faith alone in Jesus Christ.
Because a living faith means that the love of God is shed abroad in my heart (Romans 5:5); which love is a practical love (1 John 3:18) that is the fulfilling of the law's righteousness within me (Romans 13:8-10, Romans 8:4); therefore the outward evidence that someone is in the faith (by the judgment of man) is by what the man does. But God who sees the heart knows whether someone who has a death-bed conversion and therefore never has the opportunity to do any good works, has a genuine faith or not; and even if he has no works, his faith in Jesus alone will save him if it is a genuine faith (of which God is the judge because He can see what is in the heart).