Presupposition 1: Matthew 19:6 “What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” implies that God makes the union between a man and a woman in marriage; God joins them. We also know that the marriage partners become one flesh. So something happens; God does something. It's not "just" an agreement.
Presupposition 2: People cannot force God to do anything.
From presuppositions 1 and 2 follows that in particular, God cannot be forced to make a marriage union that He does not approve or does not want to bless. Who is man to force God to do anything?
This implies then two things:
1. One cannot assume that just because a man presents a woman he wants as his wife before an altar that God will necessarily join them. See Ezra 10:10–11 where the Israelites took wives that God did not approve and the prophet told them to separate. (Aside: Were the marriages valid and God was breaking the marriage (which He can obviously do because what God joins together, God can also separate) or (what I think is more likely and makes more sense; divorce is a sin and God wouldn't ask us to sin) God never married them and was asking them to end an unhealthy/unapproved relationship?)
2. Assuming marriage is in God's plan for a particular person, God has a marriage partner (or perhaps a set of marriage partners from which we can choose one) planned for him or her and if that person wants to be in the will of God, he or she should be careful to choose the correct partner. This is a reasonable conclusion seeing that God has pre-approved leaders for nations (that people can accept or reject) as we see in the cases of Saul and David in 1 Samuel 8 and 1 Samuel 16.
Your thoughts? What's bugging me the most is how the marriage covenant exactly works. Is God forced to form a marriage bond just because two people want to join in marriage? Or is it the case that some "marriages" are technically invalid as in Ezra that God Himself does not recognize as marriages?
Presupposition 2: People cannot force God to do anything.
From presuppositions 1 and 2 follows that in particular, God cannot be forced to make a marriage union that He does not approve or does not want to bless. Who is man to force God to do anything?
This implies then two things:
1. One cannot assume that just because a man presents a woman he wants as his wife before an altar that God will necessarily join them. See Ezra 10:10–11 where the Israelites took wives that God did not approve and the prophet told them to separate. (Aside: Were the marriages valid and God was breaking the marriage (which He can obviously do because what God joins together, God can also separate) or (what I think is more likely and makes more sense; divorce is a sin and God wouldn't ask us to sin) God never married them and was asking them to end an unhealthy/unapproved relationship?)
2. Assuming marriage is in God's plan for a particular person, God has a marriage partner (or perhaps a set of marriage partners from which we can choose one) planned for him or her and if that person wants to be in the will of God, he or she should be careful to choose the correct partner. This is a reasonable conclusion seeing that God has pre-approved leaders for nations (that people can accept or reject) as we see in the cases of Saul and David in 1 Samuel 8 and 1 Samuel 16.
Your thoughts? What's bugging me the most is how the marriage covenant exactly works. Is God forced to form a marriage bond just because two people want to join in marriage? Or is it the case that some "marriages" are technically invalid as in Ezra that God Himself does not recognize as marriages?