Zoii
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- Oct 13, 2016
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You mention several times that the wedding is unlawful - But I thought gay weddings were lawful in the USA or am I wrong on that point?Wrong, for you are part of the celebration of that wedding, in this case an unlawful wedding. And you cannot restrict being "a party" to something to direct involvements, not if being an accessory to a crime means more than that.
Who says? I strongly disagree, for to varying degrees you are facilitating it. You might as well rationalize you could knowingly sell gas specifically to toast Jews with clear conscience, since it just makes you a vendor. Sure the crime is greater, but the point is you are still facilitating a certain crime.
I can have scruples helping my neighbor unload a old sofa from another city which charges for pick up to throw away in the trash here where there is no charge.
Of course we are, if we know how they will be used! If your child was killed by a man who bought a gun from a dealer who knew how he was going to use it, then i think you would feel differently. And yes, the baker knew the cakes was to be expressly and specifically used to celebrate what was unlawful.
No, you are essentially using a strawman, clearly misrepresenting the case. This is not a matter of selling any item to some person who might use it to do or celebrate that which is unlawful, but of the baker being told what this special order was to be specifically used for and effectively, effectually consenting to facilitate it. Lets be consistent with the facts.
The is obscurantism, for again there is a critical difference with btwn simply selling items to people who may use them unlawfully, and selling a special item knowing it was to be expressly and specifically only used for something unlawful.
Wrong again, the manifest special status of this is morally relevant, for the size, elaborate decoration, cost and special order status was because this cake had a specific special use, to celebrate that which is unlawful.
Prepared, yes, as well as prepared to say no in the case of unlawful use. In the Masterpiece case the wedding that the couple wanted to celebrate was itself unlawful according to the highest state law, and contrary to its definition. He might as well have refused to create a work specially for celebrating a kid getting an illegal license.
Also erroneous in any case, since a Christian must obey God over men, and to contract and create and provide a cake celebrating that which is unlawful can no more be rationalized than creating a golden calf knowing it is to be specifically used in in idolatry. Hard to believe any Christian could rationalize this guilt away (not that i could not try).
In the MP case he refused only after knowing its specifically would be used to celebrate that which is unlawful in the eyes of God (as well as the state). And has refused to make other specific cakes that were for the express purpose of celebrating something immoral, including half a wedding cake for a man to celebrate his divorce.
Sigh. No, creating and selling a cake is not just selling a cake when you know it is to be specifically used to do something unlawful. Celebrating an unlawful sexual union is sin, and knowingly creating and selling a special work specifically for that celebration facilitates/helps that sin by providing assistance, is sin. Even in US law, while dealing with weightier cases aligns with this.
Accomplice Mens Rea and Actus Reus
In order to obtain a conviction of a defendant for being a principal or an accessory before the fact, the prosecution must prove that the defendant committed an act that either encouraged or actually helped the criminal, that he had the requisite intent of encouraging or helping the criminal, and that the criminal who was encouraged or assisted by the defendant actually committed the crime...
In order to demonstrate that the defendant committed the requisite actus reus, the prosecution must show that the defendant either directly or indirectly encouraged or facilitated the commission of the crime. A person has facilitated a commission of the crime if he provides the criminal with the means that the criminal uses to commit the crime...
Other jurisdictions only require the prosecutor to show that the accomplice knew that his actions would either assist or encourage the commission of a crime. The difference is that, in jurisdictions that require the prosecution to prove only that the accomplice acted while knowing that his actions would aid or encourage the commission of a crime, the accomplice can be convicted even if he did not actually want his actions to aid or encourage the commission of a crime. In these jurisdictions, even if the accomplice was dead-set against his actions being used to encourage or aid in the commission of a crime and even if he did not intend for his actions to aid or encourage the commission of the crime, so long as he knew that his actions would aid or encourage the commission of a crime, he can be convicted as an accomplice. Accomplice Mens Rea and Actus Reus - LawShelf Educational Media (emp. mine)
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