What does "except there come a falling away first" in 2 Thess. 2:3 mean?

Quasar92

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That is your website rapturenotes.com ? And you did not answer my question about Bob Jones.


Not that it makes a bit of difference, but the website you ask is mine, is not. My website is open to all who wish to participate, which I use mostly now as a data bank. I have no idea wh Bob Jones is except that he probably copied his work from that of mine, at my site. As I previously stated, that information has been on my site for at least ten years.


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2Timothy2:15

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Not that it makes a bit of difference, but the website you ask is mine, is not. My website is open to all who wish to participate, which I use mostly now as a data bank. I have no idea wh Bob Jones is except that he probably copied his work from that of mine, at my site. As I previously stated, that information has been on my site for at least ten years.


Quasar92

It does matter because there is a well known Bob Jones who is a false teacher. In addition what you say makes no sense or at least has problems. Initially when I asked about the content of the OP you said it was Bob Jones writing. Now you are saying Bob Jones plagiarizes your writing....so which is it? So you gave credit to Bob Jones knowing he plagiarized your writing?
 
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Quasar92

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Departure as rapture, or departure at all, is not found in a single English Bible translation in existence.

NASB translators' comments on the article which attempts to rewrite Holy Scripture in 2 Thess. 2:3:

The online article cited offers arguments which are incorrect. The verb that apostasia comes from has several meanings, but the main meanings include "revolt," "desert," "fall away," and even "become a backslider." The noun apostasia is not automatically capable of having all of the meanings that the verb does. The way the meaning of a word is determined is by examining how it is used, and apostasia is consistently used of revolting, rebellion, and abandoning a belief system. Aside from 2 Thess 2:3 it is only found in Acts 21:21 in the New Testament, where it is used of abandoning the Law of Moses. In the Greek translation of the Old Testament, it occurs in Josh 22:22, 2 Chr 29:19, and 1 Macc 2:15, and in each verse it refers to apostasy or rebellion.

It is interesting that the writer also cites Liddell and Scott (now LSJM) in support, observing that the first definitions are "defection" and "revolt." He fails to mention that LSJM immediately add, "especially in a religious sense, rebellion against God, apostasy," and then go on to cite not only Josh 22:22 but also 2 Thess 2:3. So what the writer states is simply a misleading presentation of the evidence. The argument about the translation shift is irrelevant in view of the evidence for the correct meaning, and this argument is also questionable. "Departure" seems not to have meant simply to leave a place, but to separate from someone or something. For these and other reasons the NASB translators are confident about the meaning "apostasy" in 2 Thess 2:3.


The article makes the following claim:

"The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either departure or departing."

Yet not a single quote of 2 Thess. 2:3 from any of the seven Bible version translations is provided.

There is thus insufficient evidence to support the claim.


The above is in direct conflict with the intended meaning in Paul's 1st and 2nd Thess., about the rapture of the Church, as documented in my post #17. You have yet to prove what he wrote has a single thing to do with the Church falling away, that you keep harping about. In case you have forgotten,
either prove Paul and Dr. Thomas Ice, PhD are wrong, or you are:

>>>The sources for what I post here come directly from the teachings of Jesus and His Apostles. The following is the precise reason for what Paul taught in 2 Thess.2:3. The epistles of Paul, in 1 Thess.4:13-18 and 2 Thess.2:1-8, are about the rapture of the Church, There is nothing in either passages that has a single thing in it about any falling away of the Church, except for the blatant mistranslation of the verse

Jn.14:2-4 and 28:
"In my Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you [See Jn.20:17]. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am. You know the way to the place where I am going." [Jn.14:2-4].

"You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." [Jn.14:28].

The Scriptures tell us where we all go, who belong to Christ, after the death of our bodies:
"We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord." As recorded in 2 Cor.5:8, confirming Ecc.12:7. Which is, in and of itself, conclusive to the fact that Jesus is not going to let the rest of His Church remain on earth to go through the seven year tribulation, when He returns for those of us who are still alive, waiting for His appearing, in 1 Thes.4:17. Since He raises all those who have died, to be with Him, immediately after their physical death, for more than 2,000 years.

1 Thes.4:13-18:
The Thessalonians were very concerned about those among them who had died, that they would not be gathered together with the rest of them when Jesus returned. Paul assures them in vs 13-14 that they will all be returning with Christ from heaven, where they have been since He raised them up to be with Him, the day they died physically, according to 2 Cor.5:6-8.

"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him [Died physically]. Vs 14.

"According to the Lord's own word [Scriptural truth as to the fact that Jesus taught there was to be a pre-trib rapture of the Church, as recorded in Jn.14:2-4 and 28], we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left to the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep." Vs 15. An assurance by Paul to the Thessalonians that the dead in Christ had already been raised from the dead before, and were already with Christ when He returns for all those left on earth alive at His coming.

Because they have already been raised, each in his/her own turn, according to 1 Cor.15:23, when and as each believer dies. That is the very reason it is not documented as a resurrection in 1 Thess.4:16.
Because they had all been raised once before, previously as recorded abpve.

"For the Lord Himself will come down from heaven [With all those who previously died in Him], according to vs 14], with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first" [Paul again assures them, as seen in verses 13-14, they were already previously raised once before, each in his/her own turn, as they died, for more than 2,000 years]. Vs 16.

"After that, we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP [raptured] together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the sky. And so we will be with the Lord forever." Vs 17. Where we proceed with Jesus to our Father in heaven as He promised us in Jn.14:2-4 and 28.

"Therefore encourage each other with these words." Vs 18.

2 Thess.2:1-8: The precise timing of the rapture of the Church:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him, [The theme of the passage consisting of verses 1-8 - a direct reference to 1 Thess.4:17] we ask you, brothers, not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation of Dan.9:27] has already come." 2 Thes.2:1-2. Which is a direct reference to 1 Thes.4:17 and the theme of Paul's entire pre-trib rapture message in 2 Thes.2:1-8. When we will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR. [Parenthetics mine].

The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man for the last time, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.

In vs 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] will not come, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "to depart," or "departure," meaning, the rapture of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The antichrist, and all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [Departure] will take place before the antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.

Translation History of apostasia and discessio: By Thomas Ice, PhD.
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608) . This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the " word discessio, meaning ' departure.' Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of "departure" in 1611 A.D.? [It is more than likely due to overzealous RCC scribes who altered the original wording of vs 3. to accommodate their teachings of Amillenialism, which rejects both the pre-trib rapture of the Church as well as Jesus Millennial reign her on earth].

Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given.

"He [The antichrist] will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4. [The abomination of desolation, confirming Dan.9:27 and Mt.24:15]. See also 2 Thes.2:4.

The rapture of the Church and verse 3 confirmed:
In vs 7: "For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The saints - Church] is taken out of the way."

The "he" who will be taken out of the way, is the one body of Christ, who bear the Holy Spirit within each of us [Eph.1:13-14], the Church of Jesus Christ. The very same as those who will participate in the "apostasia," the "departure," [the rapture] of the Church, in vs 3. Immediately following that:

In vs 8: "And then the lawless one [The antichrist] will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of His mouth and destroy by the splendor of His coming." Vs 8. [See Rev.19:17-21].

The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thes.2:3, 4 and 8.<<<


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Quasar92

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Q,

You're so full of copy and paste it's obvious you let others do your thinking for you.


Too hot for you to handle? I suggest you get out of the kitchen where it is too hot for you to handle. For lack of material to field your own views with, you are relegated to attacking your opponent personally. Which apparently is Christianity to you.


Quasar92
 
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Quasar92

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Hal A Peno wrote: "I'm going to correct you again, your first paragraph debunked......

The word 'elect' in Mathew 24:31 doesn't refers to Jews. Pre-trib deceivers do that because in the text, Jesus clearly indicates the gathering occurs AFTER the tribulation. To make pre-trib fit, they had to remove CHRISTIANS entirely from the text and tell you the chapter is meant only for Jews. However, they've been caught in a lie they can't overcome!"

You are not "correcting me," but rather, you are expressing your unsupportable, meaningless opinion. Review the statement by Jesus in the following refuting you:

Mt.10:5 "These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: “Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. 6 Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel."

Mt.15:24 "He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”


Quasar92
Sorry bud, sheep are not God's elect. I'm going by the opinion of the correct definition of the Word. You, in fabrication mode again.[/QUOTE]


Reference to the use of the word "Jews," specifically refer to Israel As such, the following refutes your above as I previously posted about this issue. Your views about Jexux referring to those who pertain to His mission is also refuted in Jm.10:16.

"I have other sheep that are not of this sheep pen. I must bring them also. They too will listen to my voice, and there shall be one flock and one shepherd."


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Quasar92

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It does matter because there is a well known Bob Jones who is a false teacher. In addition what you say makes no sense or at least has problems. Initially when I asked about the content of the OP you said it was Bob Jones writing. Now you are saying Bob Jones plagiarizes your writing....so which is it? So you gave credit to Bob Jones knowing he plagiarized your writing?


Yes the OP came from the writings of Bob Jones, who obviously copied it from my documentation of it from my public website. Why do you keep arguing over this issue when it has been previously addressed? It isn't worth either your time nor mkine.


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Douggg

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1. He is the "little horn" in Dan.7:8;

2. He is known as a "stern faced king, in Dan.8:23.

3. He is all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27.


4. He is the willful king in Dan.11:36-45.

5. In 2 Thess.2:3, 4, he is referred to as "the man of lawlessness."

6. In 2 Thess.2:8-9, he is referred to as the "lawless one."

7. In Rev.11:7; 17:3, 7, 8, 11, 12, 13, 16 and 17, he is called the beast.

8. In Rev.13:1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, he is called the beast out of the Sea.

The beast out of the earth in Rev.13:11-17 is the False Prophet and the activity he is involved in:
Q, you don't need to copy and paste all the bible verses. I am very familiar with them. You are giving me a "canned" response. The list you have above has a really big flaw in it. The person is not the Antichrist while he is the stern faced king (the little horn), the willful king, the man of lawlessness, the beast.

The person is the Antichrist only while he is in the role of the King of Israel. Just like President John F. Kennedy while he was occupying the white house was President and not lieutenant Kennedy.

While the person is in the role as being the King of Israel - he is not going to be forcing people to worship him, nor implementing the 666 buy/sell requirement.

One of the biggest causes of perpetuating misunderstanding of bible prophecy is people calling the person the Antichrist in the broad sense as you are doing. Not only inside of Christianity, but outside of Christianity as well.
 
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Quasar92

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What does "except there come a falling away first" in 2 Thess. 2:3 mean?
It means today.


That is indeed a fact. Ever since WWII. But the term "falling away," was substituted in 2 Thess.2:3, from the 14 centuries of original historical translation of the word, "departure," Paul used in describing the rapture of the church.


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Quasar92

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Q, you don't need to copy and paste all the bible verses. I am very familiar with them. You are giving me a "canned" response. The list you have above has a really big flaw in it. The person is not the Antichrist while he is the stern faced king (the little horn), the willful king, the man of lawlessness, the beast.

The person is the Antichrist only while he is in the role of the King of Israel. Just like President John F. Kennedy while he was occupying the white house was President and not lieutenant Kennedy.

While the person is in the role as being the King of Israel - he is not going to be forcing people to worship him, nor implementing the 666 buy/sell requirement.

One of the biggest causes of perpetuating misunderstanding of bible prophecy is people calling the person the Antichrist in the broad sense as you are doing. Not only inside of Christianity, but outside of Christianity as well.


The reason I go to length in posting response to you, as well as to others, without qualifications to teach eschatology, or the Bible, is to provide all the Scriptural reason for the intended and proper interpretation of the Scriptural issues being discussed.

As such, where, may I ask, did you obtain your qualifications to teach the Bible?


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BABerean2

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As such, where, may I ask, did you obtain your qualifications to teach the Bible?

I bet it was not Dallas, or Moody, or Tyndale.



Try Providence Theological, which is headed by Dr. Gary Long.
They have rejected both Reformed Covenant Theology and modern Dispensational Theology.
They teach the Bible from a New Covenant perspective.



Providence Theological Seminary

.
 
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jgr

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The above is in direct conflict with the intended meaning in Paul's 1st and 2nd Thess., about the rapture of the Church, as documented in my post #17. You have yet to prove what he wrote has a single thing to do with the Church falling away, that you keep harping about. In case you have forgotten,
either prove Paul and Dr. Thomas Ice, PhD are wrong, or you are:

>>>The sources for what I post here come directly from the teachings of Jesus and His Apostles. The following is the precise reason for what Paul taught in 2 Thess.2:3. The epistles of Paul, in 1 Thess.4:13-18 and 2 Thess.2:1-8, are about the rapture of the Church, There is nothing in either passages that has a single thing in it about any falling away of the Church, except for the blatant mistranslation of the verse

Jn.14:2-4 and 28:
"In my Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I am going there to prepare a place for you [See Jn.20:17]. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am. You know the way to the place where I am going." [Jn.14:2-4].

"You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." [Jn.14:28].

The Scriptures tell us where we all go, who belong to Christ, after the death of our bodies:
"We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord." As recorded in 2 Cor.5:8, confirming Ecc.12:7. Which is, in and of itself, conclusive to the fact that Jesus is not going to let the rest of His Church remain on earth to go through the seven year tribulation, when He returns for those of us who are still alive, waiting for His appearing, in 1 Thes.4:17. Since He raises all those who have died, to be with Him, immediately after their physical death, for more than 2,000 years.

1 Thes.4:13-18:
The Thessalonians were very concerned about those among them who had died, that they would not be gathered together with the rest of them when Jesus returned. Paul assures them in vs 13-14 that they will all be returning with Christ from heaven, where they have been since He raised them up to be with Him, the day they died physically, according to 2 Cor.5:6-8.

"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him [Died physically]. Vs 14.

"According to the Lord's own word [Scriptural truth as to the fact that Jesus taught there was to be a pre-trib rapture of the Church, as recorded in Jn.14:2-4 and 28], we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left to the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep." Vs 15. An assurance by Paul to the Thessalonians that the dead in Christ had already been raised from the dead before, and were already with Christ when He returns for all those left on earth alive at His coming.

Because they have already been raised, each in his/her own turn, according to 1 Cor.15:23, when and as each believer dies. That is the very reason it is not documented as a resurrection in 1 Thess.4:16.
Because they had all been raised once before, previously as recorded abpve.

"For the Lord Himself will come down from heaven [With all those who previously died in Him], according to vs 14], with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first" [Paul again assures them, as seen in verses 13-14, they were already previously raised once before, each in his/her own turn, as they died, for more than 2,000 years]. Vs 16.

"After that, we who are still alive and are left will be CAUGHT UP [raptured] together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the sky. And so we will be with the Lord forever." Vs 17. Where we proceed with Jesus to our Father in heaven as He promised us in Jn.14:2-4 and 28.

"Therefore encourage each other with these words." Vs 18.

2 Thess.2:1-8: The precise timing of the rapture of the Church:
"Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him, [The theme of the passage consisting of verses 1-8 - a direct reference to 1 Thess.4:17] we ask you, brothers, not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by some prophecy, report or letter supposed to have come from us, saying that the Day of the Lord [The 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation of Dan.9:27] has already come." 2 Thes.2:1-2. Which is a direct reference to 1 Thes.4:17 and the theme of Paul's entire pre-trib rapture message in 2 Thes.2:1-8. When we will be CAUGHT UP TOGETHER WITH THEM IN THE CLOUDS TO MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR. [Parenthetics mine].

The "Day of the Lord" Paul refers to in vs 2, alludes to Dan.9:27, when God will intervene into the affairs of man for the last time, culminating in the second coming of Jesus to the earth. In that passage of Scripture, the Day of the Lord is triggered by the "he" who "confirms a covenant [An agreement] for one Week" [The Day of the Lord/ 70th and final Week/seven year tribulation], who is the antichrist. The second, and same "he," who stops Israel from the offerings and sacrificing in the temple of God, and the third, and same "he," who breaks his covenant in the middle of the Week [After 3.5 of the 7 year total], and sets up the abomination of desolation Jesus referred to in Mt.24:15, in His Olivet Discourse, about the sign of His second coming, and of the end of the age.

In vs 3: "Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that Day [The Day of the Lord, the 70th and final Week, the seven year tribulation] will not come, until the "apostasia" [Greek term in which the original translation was "to depart," or "departure," meaning, the rapture of the Church] occurs and the man of lawlessness [The antichrist, and all three of the "he's" in Dan.9:27] is revealed [Who triggers the Day of the Lord/ the 70th and final Week/ the seven year tribulation], the man doomed to destruction." Which reveals the "apostasia" [Departure] will take place before the antichrist is revealed, who triggers the 70th Week/seven year tribulation. Confirmed in verses 7 and 8 below.

Translation History of apostasia and discessio: By Thomas Ice, PhD.
The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either " departure" or " departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608) . This supports the notion that the word truly means " departure." In fact, Jerome' s Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of 325 A.D. renders apostasia with the " word discessio, meaning ' departure.' Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of "departure" in 1611 A.D.? [It is more than likely due to overzealous RCC scribes who altered the original wording of vs 3. to accommodate their teachings of Amillenialism, which rejects both the pre-trib rapture of the Church as well as Jesus Millennial reign her on earth].

Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as " falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as " departure." No reason was ever given.

"He [The antichrist] will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God." Vs 4. [The abomination of desolation, confirming Dan.9:27 and Mt.24:15]. See also 2 Thes.2:4.

The rapture of the Church and verse 3 confirmed:
In vs 7:
"For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so until he [The saints - Church] is taken out of the way."

The "he" who will be taken out of the way, is the one body of Christ, who bear the Holy Spirit within each of us [Eph.1:13-14], the Church of Jesus Christ. The very same as those who will participate in the "apostasia," the "departure," [the rapture] of the Church, in vs 3. Immediately following that:

In vs 8: "And then the lawless one [The antichrist] will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of His mouth and destroy by the splendor of His coming." Vs 8. [See Rev.19:17-21].

The antichrist is found in all three of the "he's" in Dan. 9:27, confirmed by Jesus in Mt.24:15; Mk.13:14 and by Paul, in 2 Thes.2:3, 4 and 8.<<<


Quasar92
Dr. Thomas Ice PhD, versus the translators of every English Bible version in existence.

Whose side did you say you were on?
 
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Douggg

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[QUOTE="Quasar92, post: 71702329, member: 389817]
As such, where, may I ask, did you obtain your qualifications to teach the Bible?


Quasar92[/QUOTE]
Luke 24: 45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,

On the other hand, if you are asking me did I go to seminary of some sort - the answer is no.
 
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We need to keep this simple. Not to many in this world know study ancient Greek. The 1st meaning is "departure" yet can also mean "falling away, Apostasy" so forth so on. Now..one can still make it say what they want. What gets me is..

As we read 2nd.. and remember.. there were no CHAPTERS back then. Anyway.. Paul JUST tells them "That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word.......as that the day of Christ is at hand."...because.. there will be a great falling away 1st. HUH? Sorry lol.. He just tells them you have nothing to worry about for that day is at hand.. now. And then tells them.. there will be a falling way 1st? Gee.. WHO will be falling away? What.. NOT THEM no.. its the OTHER Christians? Or.. that day wont come till there be a departure and then that man of sin be revealed. Just.. me...

See bible scholars have been going on and on about this for.. before I was even thought of. Some believe it means departure from this earth.. others believe to be truing away from the faith. See is whats NOT written where some ADD to what is written. I can tell you as you did read what I might personally believe. But thats not written. To say for FACT its departing this earth..would be lie. To say its falling away from truth from Christ.. would also for me be a lie. That it not written.

Also know if you know Christ as lord.. GOD is your Father. Jesus is in you.. God is in you to do and to work.. this also is written. The sweet sweet Holy Spirit is in you. So.. to study listen is wise..but.. nothing trumps the GOD that is in you..for its the Holy Spirit that leads and guides you into all truth. That gives you the right period.
 
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Quasar92

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I bet it was not Dallas, or Moody, or Tyndale.



Try Providence Theological, which is headed by Dr. Gary Long.
They have rejected both Reformed Covenant Theology and modern Dispensational Theology.
They teach the Bible from a New Covenant perspective.



Providence Theological Seminary

.


Please explain what your above remarks about "Dallas. Moody or Tyndale" have to do with the subject of this thread, and why anyone should not attend them anymore so than any other Bible College. Your rampant opinions are worthless without valid support to substantiate them.


Quasar92
 
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Quasar92

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Dr. Thomas Ice PhD, versus the translators of every English Bible version in existence.

Whose side did you say you were on?


Your logic is the epitome of fuzziness. Dr. Thomas Ice has reported the translation history of 2 Thess.2:3 to be a DEPARTURE of the Church, which was precisely what Paul was teaching, in 1 Thess.4:13-18 and 2 Thess.2:1-8, for the first 14 centuries of its origin. It was altered in the 17th century, changing the meaning of the vese, to the Church FALLING AWAY for the next 4 centuries.

Please explain why every Bible would NOT be printing the altered version, when they are impervious to knowing any better?

You have yet to show me anywhere in the above passages referred to in the above, where you find any part of them that refers to an apostasy or a falling away of the Church, when Paul's teachings are about a rapture .


Quasar92
 
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Quasar92

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[QUOTE="Quasar92, post: 71702329, member: 389817]
As such, where, may I ask, did you obtain your qualifications to teach the Bible?
Luke 24: 45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,

On the other hand, if you are asking me did I go to seminary of some sort - the answer is no.[/QUOTE]


As such, why then, are you teaching someone who has? There is no problem at all in freely expressing your views, but stay clear away from telling me I''m wrong, or where my "errors" are. Capiche?!


Quasar92
 
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jgr

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Please explain why every Bible would NOT be printing the altered version, when they are impervious to knowing any better?
The NASB translators certainly aren't "impervious to knowing any better":

"The online article cited offers arguments which are incorrect. The verb that apostasia comes from has several meanings, but the main meanings include "revolt," "desert," "fall away," and even "become a backslider." The noun apostasia is not automatically capable of having all of the meanings that the verb does. The way the meaning of a word is determined is by examining how it is used, and apostasia is consistently used of revolting, rebellion, and abandoning a belief system. Aside from 2 Thess 2:3 it is only found in Acts 21:21 in the New Testament, where it is used of abandoning the Law of Moses. In the Greek translation of the Old Testament, it occurs in Josh 22:22, 2 Chr 29:19, and 1 Macc 2:15, and in each verse it refers to apostasy or rebellion.

It is interesting that the writer also cites Liddell and Scott (now LSJM) in support, observing that the first definitions are "defection" and "revolt." He fails to mention that LSJM immediately add, "especially in a religious sense, rebellion against God, apostasy," and then go on to cite not only Josh 22:22 but also 2 Thess 2:3. So what the writer states is simply a misleading presentation of the evidence. The argument about the translation shift is irrelevant in view of the evidence for the correct meaning, and this argument is also questionable. "Departure" seems not to have meant simply to leave a place, but to separate from someone or something. For these and other reasons the NASB translators are confident about the meaning "apostasy" in 2 Thess 2:3."


Here in addition is my request: Provide the verbatim renderings of 2 Thess. 2:3 from each of the seven translations which Ice claims use the word "depart" or its derivations, as evidence of his claim.

Thank you.
 
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