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woobadooba

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woobadooba... forgive me but.. why are you asking MAN? Your not here to please man :).. its what your Father says. For those He calls.. He equips..
The Church should work these things out together, sharing, learning, and growing from it. This is not about seeking to please people.
 
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Archivist

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The first person in Scripture to preach the Good News of the risen Christ was Mary Magdalene, a woman. Scripture tells us that she was the first to see Jesus in His resurrection and the first sent to tell others of the resurrected Jesus. The term preach is defined as "publicly proclaim or teach a religious message or belief." When she proclaimed the Good News to the disciples she was preaching--proclaiming a religious message.
 
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RDKirk

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It has already been shown in here that Paul shared a personal belief based on the distress of the times. It was not a rule given by God. See post #111. I'm sure our understanding of inspiration is not the same.
I never said Paul wasn't an inspired writer. You misunderstood me. Pay attention.

I guess you have to explain to us what your concept of "inspiration" is.
 
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woobadooba

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I guess you have to explain to us what your concept of "inspiration" is.
In some places, we see a "thus says the LORD". In some places, we see Bible writers sharing what God has revealed to them in their own thoughts. In some places, we see Bible writers sharing their own thoughts/feelings about something (especially in Psalms).

It shouldn't be difficult to recognize the difference.
 
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RDKirk

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In some places, we see a "thus says the LORD". In some places, we see Bible writers sharing what God has revealed to them in their own thoughts. In some places, we see Bible writers sharing their own thoughts/feelings about something (especially in Psalms).

It shouldn't be difficult to recognize the difference.

So are you saying that you believe only the red letters count as instruction in righteousness and everything else is just the ideas of guys who may or may not still be relevant?

It sounds as though you would not give any more credence to the apostle Paul saying something, then, than anyone calling himself a Christian--that Paul and Billy Graham are equally reliable (or not) for instruction in righteousness.
 
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woobadooba

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It sounds as though you would not give any more credence to the apostle Paul saying something, then, than anyone calling himself a Christian--that Paul and Billy Graham are equally reliable (or not) for instruction in righteousness.
It sounds as though you think you have all the answers.
 
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No. And I don't appreciate your judgmental attitude towards me.
It was Jesus who told Mary to preach the Good News of the Resurrection. If Paul says anything that disagrees with what Jesus said, I will trust Jesus.
 
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Dave-W

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Psalm 68. 11 KJV: The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it.

Youngs Literal: The Lord doth give the saying, The female proclaimers are a numerous host.

NASB: The Lord gives the command; The women who proclaim the good tidings are a great host.
 
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Dave-W

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If Paul says anything that disagrees with what Jesus said
He didn't. If anyone THINKS that happens, then they either did not understand Jesus correctly, or Paul correctly. (or both)
 
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Dave-W

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In the case of 1 Timothy 2:12; it is my understanding that women were being allowed to learn for the first time. This is maybe why Paul says LET the women learn, in verse 11. But in their desire to understand, they were asking questions in the service (see 1 Corinthians 14:34; "if a woman would learn, let her ask her on husband at home"), and disrupting everyone. So when Paul wrote, "let a woman be silent ... I do not permit a woman to teach" - and it has been pointed out that Paul says "A woman", not "all women generally"
I agree with that completely.
 
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He didn't. If anyone THINKS that happens, then they either did not understand Jesus correctly, or Paul correctly. (or both)
Hence my use of the term IF.
 
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Brokenhill

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WE are the church.
We are the church on this forum, or if we held a house group meeting in a cafe we'd be the church in the cafe, or pub. If a group of Christians met in the open air to hold a service of worship, they'd be the church in the park.
We don't need a building, or all the rituals and trappings that go with meeting in that building, to be church.
I don't disagree with this. But there is some structure within every group of christians that come together, depending on who's there.
If someone is taking 1 Timothy 2:12 literally, then a woman who is praying or prophesying is not being silent.
Women are to remain silent, unless they are allowed in certain circumstances. One of those circumstances would be Eph. 5:19...we are all commanded to sing to God/to one another.

He doesn't say that in verse 1; he says "it is good for a man not to marry." Why doesn't he say "in my opinion" here too?
In vs. 1 he's not giving a commandment.

That's not proof. Firstly because I see nothing in the Jewish law which says that God has commanded that a woman should never be a Rabbi or teacher. Secondly, Gentiles were never under the Jewish law; it was given to those that God himself had rescued from Egypt - they became his people. And thirdly, even if we HAD been under the law at some point, Jesus came to fulfil the law. The writer of Hebrews also said that the Old Covenant was broken so a new one was needed - prophesied by Jeremiah, Jeremiah 31:31-34, and brought in, and sealed, by Jesus, Matthew 26:28.
So even if the old law had said, "women must not teach and know their place", or something similar; what did Jesus say and do? He allowed women to follow him, support him financially, learn from him and speak for him. He revealed to a woman that he was the Messiah and chose a woman to be the first witness of his resurrection. AND told her to go and find the men, who were all in hiding, tell them the Good News and give them a message. Jesus talked, and listened to, women, healed, taught and forgave them and restored their dignity and self esteem; 2000 years later, people are trying to do the opposite by saying, "you're disobedient; God hasn't called you to do that, repent and believe the Bible." (Not your words, but some have said that.)
I'm not sure if you remember, but about a year or so ago we had this same argument that went on for months. I honestly don't think that your mind is ever going to change. So i'm not sure if I should keep repeating myself.

That's not proof either. Dogs were created before humans; does that mean they have more authority than us because they were created first?
It's proof because an inspired apostle as well as Jesus himself uses the creation account to remind the modern age of the eternal principals of God. In Matthew 19, Jesus corrects the error of the Jew's understanding of divorce by quoting Genesis "IN THE BEGINNING THIS WAS NOT SO" and Jesus re-iterated the true definition of marriage: ONE MAN, ONE WOMAN, BOUND BY GOD UNTIL DEATH.
So likewise, Paul uses creation to give authority to men over women. In 1 Tim as well as 1 Cor. 11.

Genesis 3:16 says:
"To the woman He said,
“I will greatly multiply
Your pain in childbirth,
In pain you will bring forth children;
Yet your desire will be for your husband,
And he will rule over you.”

God's curse in Genesis IS STILL GOING ON. I'm not sure if you were the one on here that doesn't believe that, but it's true. As long as the earth is spinning we are under the curse. Sin and death will be abolished AFTER the second coming.

Now you may say "that only applies to husbands and wives"--not true, because once again Paul appeals to creation for why women should not teach over a man and why "man is the head of the woman" in 1 Cor. 11.

When creation is appealed to, it is an eternal principle that is being discussed. Once, again, Jesus said "from the beginning this was not so..." regarding divorce.
God created Adam and then said, "it is not good for him to be alone" and created Eve to be his companion and helper. Genesis doesn't say that Eve was inferior because she was created second; Genesis 1:26-27 says that men and women were created by God, in his image. God told Eve after the fall, that her husband would rule over her, but that's not how it was in the beginning.
We've been over this before. Different roles =/= inferiority. Just because elders have authority over a local congregation does not mean that the members are inferior...we are all different, but equally important parts, of one body.
I wouldn't dream of saying that Paul was not inspired by God. What I am saying is that not everything that Paul uttered is FOR us; to be accepted and applied by us today.
Why do you get to decide when certain things are for us or not for us?
Only the context of scripture should decide...and you are correct for doing this when considering things like people retrieving Paul's cloak...but that is a VASTLY different scenario compared to the passages where he is instructing the church on structure and authority.
________

Since Jesus instituted revolutionary ideas, and gave freedom from the law...and since Paul taught the gospel + other related things....

Why did Paul teach silence for women? Why did he let the local society affect the church? The whole point of Christianity is that we are supposed to be DRASTICALLY DIFFERENT from the world...and that the world, society, culture, HAS NOT REGULATION over the church?
So why did Paul teach what he taught?
 
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Brokenhill

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No. Paul is saying in the case of a believer married to a believer, he's specifically quoting Jesus (Matthew 19); but in the case of a believer married to a pagan, he is not specifically quoting Jesus (because Jesus never spoke of a believer married to a pagan).

A few verses later, Paul affirms that he himself is indeed speaking under inspiration of God.
Paul is going back and forth between the Lord's will, and his own opinion (with godly wisdom).
 
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Brokenhill

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You misunderstand what the apostle is saying. I know what you say here is a popular opinion, but it is not true.

When Paul says something is "Not I but the Lord.." he is saying that it can be found in the OT. When he says "I say, not the Lord, ..." he is saying it is NEW revelation from God not written in the OT. It is still just as inspired and just as binding.
As far as i'm aware, in early christian writings (not just the NT), when something is said such as "as the lord said...", they are referring to Jesus. Not the OT. When they refer to the OT, something is said like "As it is written...".

Although I suppose verse 25 of 1 Cor. 7 would have been a better vs. to point out for clarity.

"25 Now concerning virgins I have no command of the Lord, but I give an opinion as one who by the mercy of the Lord is trustworthy."
 
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Paidiske

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Why did Paul teach silence for women? Why did he let the local society affect the church? The whole point of Christianity is that we are supposed to be DRASTICALLY DIFFERENT from the world...and that the world, society, culture, HAS NOT REGULATION over the church?
So why did Paul teach what he taught?

This is a really important question.

In every age and place, society and church both affect one another. This can happen in both good and bad ways. (So an example of a good way would be, I can go to worship held in English rather than the language of the earliest believers).

We are supposed to be drastically different to the world, but we're also not supposed to be a scandal to the world. Part of how I make sense of this is that Paul - or the author of some of the passages attributed to him, at least - thought it was more important not to cause scandal by asserting the full equality of women in every situation. The irony here is that now the reverse is true; we cause scandal by refusing to assert the full equality of women! So teaching that was given in order to win over 1st-century pagan men now repulses 21st-century secular people.
 
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Strong in Him

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Women are to remain silent, unless they are allowed in certain circumstances. One of those circumstances would be Eph. 5:19...we are all commanded to sing to God/to one another.

IF women's silence is a command - because it is in God's word, and Paul was inspired by the Spirit, then it's a command from God, is his will and what he wants. So it should have happened everywhere.
To say "God has commanded women to be silent for these reasons ........ EXCEPT when he tells them to pray, prophesy and worship", is inconsistent and confusing.

I'm not sure if you remember, but about a year or so ago we had this same argument that went on for months. I honestly don't think that your mind is ever going to change. So i'm not sure if I should keep repeating myself.

This topic is always being discussed somewhere on CF; I've been in dozens of discussions.
To be honest, it's very unlikely that I will change my mind, because:
a) The Scriptures that are quoted to "prove" that women cannot be ordained, or even preach, don't say what people claim that they do.
b) A lot of the arguments given either don't make sense or are illogical - and God is a God of order and logic, and gave us minds and the ability to reason and decide.
c) People have insisted that they take, and we are to take, these Scriptures literally - and yet they have a more liberal attitude to other Scriptures.
d)If we DID take those Scriptures literally, they would contradict other Scriptures.
e) I know women who have been called by God to be preachers or Ministers/Pastors. They have done this with the permission and under the authority of the Lord and the church. They have not been rebuked, corrected or removed by God for "sin"; in many cases they have been, and are, a blessing to the church. I KNOW how God has called me to preach, and I want only to do hos will.
I put this reason last in the list because some people think that I am in favour of this only because of my feeling or experience.

It's proof because an inspired apostle as well as Jesus himself uses the creation account to remind the modern age of the eternal principals of God.

It's NOT proof because Scripture doesn't say that, Jesus didn't teach it and there are Scriptural examples of women teaching, preaching the word and leading men. God himself raised up women to be prophets, evangelists, judge over the nation, deaconesses, and deacons, in church. In Scripture, men were taught, healed, restored, saved from death and given the Good News about Jesus, because a woman told them, was used to bring about their healing or imparted that knowledge to them. God did not establish an "eternal principle" about a woman's role, and then break his own principle by allowing women to do the thing that he did not want them to do.

PROOF would be if Scripture said, "it is God's will that no woman should be allowed to preach the Gospel - ever." Or "Jesus said, 'go into the world .... preach, teach and make disciples - but women don't need to obey this'." OrJ ""Jesus said, 'I will build my church and the gates of hell will never be able to overcome it - UNLESS a woman takes a leadership role, then you're on your own'."
If the Bible said this, if Jesus had taught, and shown by example, that women were never to preach or lead; if God had clearly said, in words we could all understand, that no woman would ever be allowed to be a Minister in his church, and NEVER chosen women to take his word to others; that would be proof.

Saying, "well Paul said that Adam was created first, so that must mean that God chose the man, and all men, to be in a position of leadership and authority", is interpretation; not proof.

I
God's curse in Genesis IS STILL GOING ON. I'm not sure if you were the one on here that doesn't believe that, but it's true. As long as the earth is spinning we are under the curse.

1) Jesus came to die for our sins, to release us from the curse of eternal death and reconcile us to God.
2) Part of the woman's curse was "in pain you will bear children" (or similar words). Yet for some women, childbirth is pretty painless - due to drugs/Cesarians etc - whereas other women don't have children at all. If you are childless or have a pain free labour, does that mean you are no longer under God's curse?
3) We CAN BE forgiven for, and set free from, our sin and the fear of eternal death. We still sin sometimes, and may suffer due to the sins of others, but we have been set free from slavery to sin, Romans 6:6, Romans 6:17, Romans 6:20; Galatians 5:1; Revelation 1:5.

Now you may say "that only applies to husbands and wives"--not true, because once again Paul appeals to creation for why women should not teach over a man and why "man is the head of the woman" in 1 Cor. 11.

So why did he CHOOSE a woman to be the first witness to his resurrection? Why did he tell her to go into a roomful of men, proclaim the Good News and give them a message from him?
Why did he allow the woman at the well to go back to her town and tell the men that she had found the Messiah?
Why did he allow Mary to sit at his feet - which is where student Rabbis sat when they were learning from their masters - and say that she had chosen "the better way"? Women weren't allowed to learn, at that time; Jesus allowed it.
Why did the early church allow women to be in the upper room before Pentecost, Acts 1:14, to teach, Acts 18:26 and be deacons, deaconesses and co workers for the Gospel, Romans 16:1-2,6,7,12;Philippians 4:2-3?

When creation is appealed to, it is an eternal principle that is being discussed.

That's an interpretation. I am certain that if God had not meant women to teach, preach or have any authoritative role over a man, EVER, he would have said so clearly, and made his will and commands clear to us. Further more, he would not have chosen any woman to work for him/preach is word - EVER.

We've been over this before. Different roles =/= inferiority. Just because elders have authority over a local congregation does not mean that the members are inferior...

No, it doesn't.
Who gives the elders their authority? God, and then the church. All authority comes from God, and Jesus was given ALL authority after his ascension, Matthew 28:18.
The authority, gifts and power come from God; the church recognises that it is God who has called a person and given them gifts, authority and power to preach his word and/or lead his people.
All is from God. It is God's calling, God's work, God's kingdom, God's authority, God who gives gifts, and God who has created us in his image, saved us and made us his children. We all serve God in the power of the Spirit; having God himself inside us.

Why do you get to decide when certain things are for us or not for us?
Only the context of scripture should decide...and you are correct for doing this when considering things like people retrieving Paul's cloak...but that is a VASTLY different scenario compared to the passages where he is instructing the church on structure and authority.

But the principle's the same.
Would the people in Galatia who read Paul's letters have rushed to find his cloak to take it to him? No; they would have recognised that that was a personal instruction given to Timothy.
Would the church in Rome have obeyed his "command" that women should not teach? It's difficult to see how, when they had a letter from him that positively praised women for all their hard work in spreading the Gospel. Would the church at Philippi obeyed this? Unlikely - not only did they have deaconesses, but their very church was co founded by a woman; Lydia, Acts 16:11-15.
Would the church in Corinth, who were rebuked for drunkenness, have read Paul's words to Timothy and said, "see; we ARE allowed to drink"? I am certain they would have recognised, also, that Paul was writing a personal instruction to Timothy.
Did the church of the NT read the Jewish law and say, "we must do this today; it's Scriptural"? No, they taught that circumcision was a) only for God's people and b) only given for a time; that the law was a shadow of what was to come and that Jesus fulfilled the law.

Why did Paul teach silence for women? Why did he let the local society affect the church?

He didn't.

The whole point of Christianity is that we are supposed to be DRASTICALLY DIFFERENT from the world...and that the world, society, culture, HAS NOT REGULATION over the church?

No, we are told not to adopt the same standards and morals as the world; not to conform to it, and not to love it as though this world is all there is.
We are told to be salt and light in the world, Matthew 5:13-16; salt, in a corrupt world that needs cleansing, and light in the darkness.
We are commanded to treat one another as we would lie to be treated ourselves, Matthew 12:7, and to love as Jesus loved us, John 13:34.

How does the teaching, "when a woman is in church they must sit down, shut up and not preach, or teach, the word of God", obey that?
How is the church leading by example and showing God's love and acceptance for everyone, if it's basically saying, "never mind about equality, or laws which include and recognise the gifts, and rights of women; if you join US, you will leave your gifts, personality and calling at the door, submit to male teaching and leadership, and do as you're told, without question"? How is that message Good News for women, and how does it square with Jesus' treatment of them?

So why did Paul teach what he taught?

He didn't teach it as a general principle; this is evident by the way he allowed women to help him, to do things, and commended the fr their hard work for the Gospel.
There may well have been women in his churches who spent time chattering during the services and disrupting them. This seems to have been the case in Corinth; in 1 Corinthians 14 Paul says that if they want to learn anything they should "ask their OWN husbands at home". He would not have needed to say that if women were already doing that and were silent in the service. Of course asking questions of those around you is disruptive, and calling out, or questioning the speaker is disruptive and a challenge to their authority. So don't do it, Paul says. God is a God of order; there is a time and a place for challenges and questions.

This is very far from saying, "no women can speak in church to read/preach the Bible, give testimony or prophesy - anywhere at any time, EVER."
Apart from anything else, 1 Tim 2:12 says "A woman" not "ALL women".
 
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Brokenhill

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This is a really important question.

In every age and place, society and church both affect one another. This can happen in both good and bad ways. (So an example of a good way would be, I can go to worship held in English rather than the language of the earliest believers).

We are supposed to be drastically different to the world, but we're also not supposed to be a scandal to the world. Part of how I make sense of this is that Paul - or the author of some of the passages attributed to him, at least - thought it was more important not to cause scandal by asserting the full equality of women in every situation. The irony here is that now the reverse is true; we cause scandal by refusing to assert the full equality of women! So teaching that was given in order to win over 1st-century pagan men now repulses 21st-century secular people.
It's also scandalous to preach against homosexuality, or fornication...but that doesn't mean that those things are now acceptable just because it's politically correct.

Paul does say "Give no offense to Jews or to Greeks or to the church of God", but he DOES NOT mean at all costs. If there is something that is neutral (neither wrong nor right), then do all in your power not to offend (such as offering meat to your vegetarian brother)...However, Jesus Himself did not stop preaching truth even though the Pharisees and Sadducees were offended at Jesus and thought He blasphemed.

Likewise, the fact that men are to be leaders (under Christ) in the local congregation of Christians is not to be changed because it is now outrageous to teach that.
There is NO scriptural proof that Paul only had a specific city or time frame in mind when he taught what he did. There is much more evidence to conclude that he was teaching God's will to all people for all time.
 
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Dave-W

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As far as i'm aware, in early christian writings (not just the NT), when something is said such as "as the lord said...", they are referring to Jesus. Not the OT. When they refer to the OT, something is said like "As it is written...".
IMO that is a christian opinion being projected back into the text.
 
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Dave-W

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Although I suppose verse 25 of 1 Cor. 7 would have been a better vs. to point out for clarity.

"25 Now concerning virgins I have no command of the Lord, but I give an opinion as one who by the mercy of the Lord is trustworthy."
And again I would still hold this as authoritative/binding per Matt 16.19 and 18.18. "Bind and loose" was first century religious jargon meaning to make the rules for how to walk in obedience. Our Lord gave that to His apostles (and I include Paul as the 13th apostle) So what Paul wrote was and is binding; EVEN IF he says it is only his opinion.
 
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