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How can the grace of God be resisted by some yet received by others?
- Thread starter bottomofsandal
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Yes, I would. Did not Cyrus please God in an unregenerate state, even so much so that God called him a messiah?
Why, because he obeyed God.
So we see that God does communicate with unsaved people, people who's beliefs run contrary to Yehovah being the only God. People who do not believe that He does, or can, are limiting the power of God.
imo...
Those who think that one must be regenerated in order to hear God speaking to a man's heart/mind, through the power of the Holy Spirit, do not have a very high opinion of God's power or God's love. They are truly limiting God's Sovereignty.
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- Apr 5, 2007
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I wasn't talking about hearing God. I was talking about pleasing God, i.e. doing something for His glory.
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- Jun 26, 2015
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There were 4 'if so' questions. You answered two.
Here they are again.
1) Have you ever sinned?
2) Have you ever made a mistake?
3) If so did God cause you to sin?
4) If so did God cause you to make a mistake?
5) If so did God allow you to sin?
6) If so did God allow you to make a mistake?
If God didn't cause you to sin, as you say He didn't, then God must have allowed it to happen. Correct?
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- Apr 5, 2007
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The first two if so's made sense since it appears they were related to the first two questions. The second set wasn't as clear.
But anyway, when I sin it's because it's ordained by God and He has a purpose.
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EmSw
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He didn't add anything. If the verse in question is 2 Pet 3:9, he is simply acknowledging that the pronoun "you" is "the elect", which was already established earlier in the book (2nd Peter), indeed, even in the previous letter (1st Peter)
Follow the pronouns throughout the books/chapter:
The introduction to chapter 3 says "beloved, this is the second letter I have written to you" (2 Peter 3:1)
Who is the "you"? Who is "the beloved"?
If 2nd Peter is the second letter written to this group, that means 1st Peter was the first letter written to them.
The recipients of 1st Peter is "God's elect..exiles scattered abroad" (1 Peter 1:1-2)
So when you get to 2nd Peter Chapter 3 Verse 9, it says:
"The Lord is patient towards YOU..not willing that any should perish"
Who is the "you"?
Is this a pronoun?
Was the antecedent already established for the past several chapters and at least 2 books?
The answer is yes.
Why would Peter be worried about the elect perishing?
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As for Judas, him being foretold by prophecy as recorded in scripture, then yes must have been predestined.
What happened is what God had predestined to occur. Why is that so hard to believe?
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- Jun 26, 2015
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This is my question as well. If one has been predestined/preordained by God to salvation, how could they ever be lost?
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Peter is not worried one bit about the elect perishing, how do you get that idea?
The idea is one of confidence of salvation as Peter says, God is not willing they perish.
So they do not perish, it is not His will.
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What makes you think that? Christ chooses Judas to be the traitor.
Judas is the traitor as foretold in scripture.
Christ calls Judas a devil. Christ chose a devil to betray Him, makes sense to me.
Christ call Judas a devil before Judas betrays Christ, so Christ knows all things beforehand in intimate detail.
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- Apr 5, 2007
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STILL not answering the question. But again, it's expected. I really only asked so that it might cause others to think.
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- Apr 5, 2007
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Pulling random verses out doesn't mean you've actually addressed anything.
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