What exactly are you calling the law? Are you saying the law is God's instructions to mankind? Are you saying that one can be righteous if they keep the law? If so can you name anyone except Jesus that has done so? Remember no one can see God without being righteous. Abraham sinned. David sinned. Both are righteous. How can this be? (hint Romans 4)
I have repeatedly told you that you do that we do not become righteous by obeying the law - that was was never the reason why God instructed Israel to obey it. The only way to become righteous and by grace through faith, not by works, but rather we are new creations in Christ for the purpose of doing good works (Ephesians 2:8-10) and the law is God's instructions for how to do good works (2 Timothy 3:16-17).
By "the law" I am referring to what God gave to Moses and the Israelites. However, God's law remains the way to have a righteous conduct and the way to act in line with God's righteousness regardless of who He gave the law to, so anyone who wants to know how to have a righteous conduct can look up God's instructions for how to do so in His law. As part of the New Covenant, we are told to have a righteous conduct, so we should to follow those instructions by grace through faith. We are not to have a righteous conduct in order to become righteous, but because we have been declared righteous, and that is the way that God has instructed those He has declared righteous to live.
What are God's instructions to whom? Please quote at least 2 of them.Then is no one except those 2 houses eligible for salvation? How can Acts be true if this is the case? Remember Peter marveled that gentiles had the very same gift given on the day of Pentecost.
Romans 9:6-8 But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel, 7 and not all are children of Abraham because they are his offspring, but “Through Isaac shall your offspring be named.” 8 This means that it is not the children of the flesh who are the children of God, but the children of the promise are counted as offspring.
God's instructions were given to Israel and it is only those two houses that are eligible for salvation. Acts is true because Gentiles can be grafted into Israel and in inherit the promise through faith in Messiah. As such, they should also obey the instructions that God has given to Israel.
Please identify each him, his and he for us.What are the Messiah's commands? Please keep JN 1:17 in mind when you respond.
Those pronouns refer to Jesus. As I said, those verses associate following Jesus' commands with walking as he walked, and Jesus didn't command one thing and do another, but rather he practiced what he preached and preached what he practiced, so his commands are the same as the way he walked, which is in perfect obedience to the law. Jesus was not in disagreement with the Father about what commands we should follow, but rather he said he came only to do the Father's will.
No. You're requiring us to keep the law which we're delivered from. Rom 7:6 doesn't say we're delivered from the punishment of the law.
Romans 7:4-6 Likewise, my brothers, you also have died to the law through the body of Christ, so that you may belong to another, to him who has been raised from the dead, in order that we may bear fruit for God. 5 For while we were living in the flesh, our sinful passions, aroused by the law, were at work in our members to bear fruit for death. 6 But now we are released from the law, having died to that which held us captive, so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit and not in the old way of the written code.[c] What then shall we say? That the law is sin? By no means! Yet if it had not been for the law, I would not have known sin. For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, “You shall not covet.”
The "likewise" in verse 4 refers to the earlier example in verses 1-3 where the woman was released from what would penalize her for living with another man while her husband was still alive and refers to her not being released from any of the other laws against adultery, murder, theft, etc. As Paul talked about in chapter 6, we have been released from sin and as Paul talked about later in chapter 7, it is the law of sin that arises sinful passions and bears fruit unto death, so we have been released from the law of sin and death. To make sure you didn't misunderstand him as saying that we have been released from God's law, he said in verse 7 that the law is not sin, but rather it tells us what sin is. If we have been released from God's law, then we are free to do what it says is sin, but Paul made it very clear that being under grace didn't mean that we were free to sin (Romans 6:15)
I didn't slander you in the least. Its a fact you don't keep the 4th commandment if you use electricity even passively because it requires your servant to work on the Sabbath. That is forbidden by the 4th commandment. It is your choice to not use electricity on the Sabbath. If that meter turns you purchased goods (conducted business for personal consumption).
I don't obey your opinion about how to keep the Sabbath, which is not at all the same thing as not keeping the Sabbath.
No. Righteousness does not come by performance under any covenant. See Rom 4.
Again, I never suggested that righteousness comes by perform under any covenant. A teacher is someone who teaches, a firefighter is someone who fights fires, and a righteous person is someone who practices righteousness. A righteous conduct is not what makes someone become righteous, but rather it is what someone does by because they are righteous by grace through faith. We are not declared righteous by practicing righteousness, but rather we are declared righteous for the purpose of practicing righteousness.
According to you one must perform righteousness to be righteous. This doesn't line up with Rom 4. No one does good (keeps the law). No one can either. See Isa 63:17, Psalms 14:3 and Rom 3:23. Another thing is redemption was promised long before the law - Gen 3:15. The law is another thing the Christians is redeemed from.
Again, I've never stated you must perform righteousness to be righteous. No one can keep the law perfectly through their own effort, but with God nothing is impossible. By grace through faith in Messiah we can be made meet the righteous requirement of the law (Romans 8:4). In Isaiah 63:17, it is talking about false righteousness, but in Revelation 19:8 it says that we will be clothed in fine linen that is the righteous deeds of the saints. The redeemer redeems us from sin, not the law that tells us what sin is. We have no need to be redeemed from the law, nor should be even want to be redeemed from something that is holy, righteous, and good. We should delight in the law as Paul and David did (Romans 7:22, Psalms 1:1-2) and desire to be obedient slaves to God because we have been saved from disobedience (Romans 6:16).
The law in this passage is the husband. The husband (the law) died. No one is free to sin. All people sin. There's not a single passage that will back up your idea the Christian is released from punishment if we're subject to the law. Mat 5:17-18 is all the proof needed.
Paul said in Romans 7:1 that he was speaking to those who knew the law, so he was using an example from the law to illustrate his point rather than using an analogy where everything was represented by something else. The law in this passage can't be the husband because we are the ones who are dying to the law and it is the husband who dies. There are no verses that back up being released from punishment except for all the verses that talk about that. Romans 8:1 is another good example. We are released from the punishment because Christ has taken our punishment in our place, but that doesn't mean that we are now free to spit on his sacrifice by continuing to practice what God has said is sin.
NO. The Christian is delivered from the law - Rom 7:6 and more like Jer 31:31-33 coupled with Mat 26:28 and 2 other gospels.
Again, writing the law on our hearts so that we will obey it is the opposite of delivering us from the law. The New Covenant does not change God's holiness, righteousness, and goodness, so the law that is based off of it remains the same.
[/quote]Jesus didn't teach nor bring the law according to JN 1:17 and the Sermon on the Mount found in Matthew. Jesus didn't require the keeping of the law either - JH 15:10.[/quote]
If Jesus had said nothing and had only lived in perfect obedience to the law, then he still would have taught how to obey the law by example. As it is, Jesus taught how to obey it both by word and by example, and the Sermon on the Mount is a perfect example of him teaching how to obey the law. Whenever Jesus quoted from the law he said "it is written", but when he was quoting from what the teachers of the law were saying about the law he said "you have heard it said". For example:
Matthew 5:43 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’
While the law certainly says to love your neighbor (Leviticus 19:18), it does not say to hate your enemy - that is what the teachers of the law had been wrongly teaching. So Jesus was fulfilling the law by correcting the teachers of the law and teaching how to correctly understand and obey it.
John 1:16-17 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.[d] 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Grace was added to grace, so the grace and truth that came through Christ was added to the grace of the law. Strong's defines "grace" as "the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life" and the law is God's instructions for how to do His will, so the reflection of God's will in our lives is obedience to His law.
No because of Jer 31:31-33. Besides that Luke 16:16 say the law was until John. Gal 3:19 says until the seed (Jesus) should come.
I have no idea why you think any of those verse counter Deuteronomy 13. If any of those verses hold the interpretation that you think they do, then according to Deuteronomy 13, the authors of those verses were false prophets, and we should disregard that they said. So you should either disregard those verses or reconsider your faulty interpretation.
Paul shows the law of sin is the created by disobedience to the law of God which kills the same as the law of sin.
The fact that God's law brings death for disobedience should be a reason to obey it, not disobey it.
No again. No law-no charge to punish. The law was and remains a legal instrument requiring punishment for violation. Grace can release on from punishment. Thus grace voids the law.
Grace released us from punishment for disobedience to the law because it is by grace through faith that God's will is reflected in our lives and we are able to obey it.
Nope!!!!! the covenant has changed from law to promises. The receiver of a promise can't violate it.
bugkiller
The New Covenant has better promises listed in Jeremiah 31, but it also involves God writing His law on our hearts, so it is not a change from law, but rather we have a better means of obeying God's law.
