Well, He did say this:
“A little while longer and the world will see Me no more.." (Jn 14:19)
How long is "No more" in your view?
I believe all Biblical eschatology found it's PRIMARY fulfillment in and around the events leading up to and including Jerusalem's AD70 destruction.
I have been VERY CLEAR with you that I also believe those events likely TYPIFY the future to us Creedal consummation, and as such render me diametrically opposed to the full preterist position.
Well, Resurrection is a tricky topic because the bible uses the term "resurrection" of national restorations, personal salvation/baptism, the transfer of departed souls in the O.T. Hades into God's heaven, and the final state of all things.
Just as?
So you believe we will retain our death wounds, if any, in our resurrected bodies "Just as" Jesus did?
Bullet holes, stab wounds, mangled limbs from an auto accident, beheadings?
Sure,
And while I do, perhaps you could state as briefly as possible what you believe Hymenaeus was saying and why it was gravely false compared to what Paul taught?
In YOUR view, what precisely is the error of Hymenaeus that Paul is rebuking? Is it timing that Paul has problems with? If yes, why?
Is it the nature of the event Paul has problems with? If yes, how do you know this from the passage?
I say it's timing, 1) because Paul explicitly says it was about timing and 2) if it were nature, Paul could have simply taken him to the nearest cemetery and pointed to the unopened graves and, case closed. But that's not what Paul did.
I believe my question to you about this, combined with the timing error of Hymenaeus, will help us arrive at the answer. What damning, faith-destroying error did Paul continuously have to address in his epistles?
Do you know?
Hint: the answer links right up to the error of Hymenaeus.
The Thief's coming of Jesus Christ was a conditional first-century event based on the decisions of men??? The Thief's coming of Jesus Christ was delayed 2000+ years because some first-century men did or did not not repent when Jesus attempted to come back for them? Not hardly.
Furthermore, St. John did not say Christ's coming to them was conditional. RATHER, what was conditional was whether or not Jesus was going to reward them or punish them at his coming to them. That Jesus was returning to those seven churches of Asia Minor is not in question, if we are to trust the words of St. John and Jesus Christ.
The only conditional part to Rev 2-3 is whether each Church would be punished or rewarded (according to their works, of course). If they were obedient, they were rewarded. If disobedient, punished. The idea that Christ was making his thief's coming to them conditional is nowhere in the text.
The giving of either a punishment or a reward was all that was conditional, and the condition was placed upon "their works" (Matt 16:27; Rev 20:13; Rom 2:6), which Jesus was then judging in Rev 2-3 (Rev 2:2, 2:9, 2:13, 2:19, Rev 3:2, 3:8, 3:15 ). The judging of their works took place in Revelation 2-3, back in the first century, and St. John documents it for us to read about.
And, again, if there is any "Church Age Dispensation" or "1948" or "Computerized mark" to be found in prophetic scripture, then Revelation 2-3 clearly demonstrates that Jesus knew nothing about it! There is no way around it, Postview, Since Jesus was, in your view, offering a conditional Thief's coming back in the first century, then that makes the glorified Jesus entirely ignorant of the Long Church Age Dispensation, ignorant of 1948, and ignorant of any computerized mark that is inserted into one's hand! This fact alone entirely destroys the main tenets of futurism.
The Thief's coming of Christ is NOT A CONDITIONAL EVENT. According to scripture, the coming of Christ was to take place irrespective of whether some repented and others did not -- in fact, the doctrine of the coming fully and uniformly teaches that some would be faithful and others unfaithful (Romans 2:5-9; Mt 25:1-13; Lk 13:24-30; 1 Cor 3:12-15). As the angel also plainly states:
Revelation 22:10-11
And he said to me, "Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this book, for the time is near. Let the one who does wrong, still do wrong; and the one who is filthy, still be filthy; and let the one who is righteous, still practice righteousness; and the one who is holy, still keep himself holy."
Did you catch that? Man's repentance or lack thereof has nothing to do with the timing of the coming of Christ. Nothing whatsoever. Note also that Jesus explicitly says that the Thyatria Prophetess movement chose not to repent, and that He was coming and would kill her and her "children." But to the rest at Thyatria (the faithful), they were to hold fast and had no additional burden placed upon them, for Jesus had rewards to give them as stated in Rev 2:26-28. We know that Christ came to them, for he came and killed the Prophetess and rewarded the faithful as he said. This is all first-century stuff here. No "Church Age," no "1948," no "OWG" no "21st century computer chips" -- the glorified Jesus knew of none of those modern speculative doctrines, and that makes them impossible doctrines, ones not found anywhere in scripture. Had any of those things been biblical doctrines, then Jesus would not be speaking to first-century churches about His thiefs coming as we see him doing in Revelation 2-3, where He plainly applies the doctrine to first-century people. Jesus must be right, and therefore futurism must be wrong concerning the timing of the thiefs coming of Christ.
--THE RELIEF PROVIDED BY CHRIST'S COMING--
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Thessalonica
promise: 2 Thess 1:6-7
result: their persecutors would be cut off, ending their persecution
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Thyatira
promise: Rev 2:18-25
result: their false prophetess and all her followers would be killed off by
Christ's coming. The Church was granted Christ's authority.
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Pergamum
promise: Rev 2:12-16
result: the heretical Nicolaitans were to put down by Christ's coming to
Pergamum. The Nicolaitans that were causing them to break the decree of the Council of Jerusalem were killed (Rev 2:14; cf.Acts 15:28-29).
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Sardis
promise: Rev 3:1-5
result: Christ promises them that his "thief-in-the-night" coming will come
upon them. They had not been faithfully expecting "the thief" as explained to them in Matt 24:43/1 Thess5:2-5. However, a few in Sardis were found worthy and had not soiled their garments. At Christ's coming to them "they walked in white, for they were worthy" (Rev 3:4-5).
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Philadelphia
promise: Rev 3:7-13
result: Christ puts down the then-contemporary Jewish persecution (3:9).
He preserves the Church at Philadelphia through the testing which was then about to come upon the whole empire (3:10). God makes his faithful ones "pillars" in the Temple of God.
* Christ's Coming to First-Century Laodicea
promise: Rev 3:14-21
result: Christ is shown to be knocking at their door as first promised in Matt 24:33 (cf. also James 5:9). If they didn't repent it appears they were annihilated. Repentant and obedient followers said to become partakers of Christ's heavenly authority.
I could add many other things, but this will do for now. It is clear that the scriptures contain the historic record of the tribulation period, and they explain the relief that Christ's Coming brought to the churches around the empire, precisely as they were promised. Christ did not fail them.
With respect, that is circular reasoning. To simply say "It means that because it does" doesn't win me over, and won't ever.
And there are three more uses of "stoicheion" in the Bible that you missed:
Col 2:8 Beware lest anyone cheat you through philosophy and empty deceit, according to the tradition of men, according to the
basic principles of the world, and not according to Christ.
Col 2:20 Therefore, if you died with Christ from the
basic principles of the world, why, as
though living in the world, do you subject yourselves to regulations—
Heb 5:12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you need
someone to teach you again
the first principles of the oracles of God; and you have come to need milk and not solid food.
It is these FIRST, BASIC, ELEMENTARY PRINCIPLES, the "stoicheion" of the Mosaic Law that Peter says would burn with fervent heat, and indeed at AD 70 they did.
So again, And I'll rephrase, of the 7 uses of Stoicheion in scripture, you say 5 do not mean periodoc table, but 2 do, and you base that on?? "Because you say so" is all I can come up with from what you have written.
Perhaps you could Show me the scriptural teaching that instructs you to apply a completely polar opposite meaning to two of the 7 uses?
Then it seems your claim
is that any wounds we receive in death we will retain in our resurrected Bodies,
no different from Jesus.
Once you allow for ONE difference, you argument that there can be
no deviation between our resurrected bodies and Jesus' resurrected body, dissolves into the ether.
I assume you believe Jesus Today is confined to the Exact same Body that walked the earth? or Do you allow for some difference?
When do you Believe Jesus' body was Glorified? At the Resurrection? sometime later? sometime before?
What scripture supports your view?
Would you care to address those multiple passages I cited and and share your view of the language used?
Literal, Figurative? Fulfilled, Unfulfilled?
Well, He did say this:
“A little while longer and the world will see Me no more.." (Jn 14:19)
How long is "No more" in your view?
Context, context context!
I believe all Biblical eschatology found it's PRIMARY fulfillment in and around the events leading up to and including Jerusalem's AD70 destruction.
I disagree and do not believe you have or can prove that many of the things you say happened actually happened. Specifically “coming of the Lord” as in Rev 19 or 1 Thess 4 and a bodily resurrection of believers as described in 1 Corin 15, Philippians 3:21, and others.
I have been VERY CLEAR with you that I also believe those events likely TYPIFY the future to us Creedal consummation, and as such render me diametrically opposed to the full preterist position.
Is this what you call wiggle room? Maybe you should spent a little more time explaining this part, rather than spending most of your time telling me why I can’t believe what scripture actually says.
Well, Resurrection is a tricky topic because the bible uses the term "resurrection" of national restorations, personal salvation/baptism, the transfer of departed souls in the O.T. Hades into God's heaven, and the final state of all things.
Yes I believe you have said it was tricky before. You do like to play with words. I defined in what context I was talking about.
Post #270 I believe it is a bodily resurrection just as Jesus.
Just as?
So you believe we will retain our death wounds, if any, in our resurrected bodies "Just as" Jesus did?
Bullet holes, stab wounds, mangled limbs from an auto accident, beheadings?
You know it is possible Jesus had black hair and brown eyes do you think I mean every resurrected person would have matching hair and eyes? Absurd, another diversionary tactic. Resurrected “as Jesus” in a real flesh and bone, immortal body. None of us have or will die for the sins of the world I’m sure there will be no nail scars.
Now here is the question from post #270, can you just answer it without literary gymnastics?
Post # 270 What is your definition of resurrection as referred to in John 5:29, John 11:24, Hebrews 6:2, Philippians 3:10-21
And while I do, perhaps you could state as briefly as possible what you believe Hymenaeus was saying and why it was gravely false compared to what Paul taught?
2 Tim 2:14 Of these things put them in remembrance, charging them before the Lord that they strive not about words to no profit, but to the subverting of the hearers.
15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
16 But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness.
17 And their word will eat as doth a canker: of whom is Hymenaeus and Philetus;
18 Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some.
In YOUR view, what precisely is the error of Hymenaeus that Paul is rebuking? Is it timing that Paul has problems with? If yes, why?
Yes timing, they said the resurrection was past. Paul had a problem because it had not passed.
Is it the nature of the event Paul has problems with? If yes, how do you know this from the passage?
I say it's timing, 1) because Paul explicitly says it was about timing and 2) if it were nature, Paul could have simply taken him to the nearest cemetery and pointed to the unopened graves and, case closed. But that's not what Paul did.
Can you point to cemetery in Jerusalem or anywhere else that was opened in 70 AD? Can you provide any historical record of a bodily resurrection in 70 AD ?
I believe my question to you about this, combined with the timing error of Hymenaeus, will help us arrive at the answer. What damning, faith-destroying error did Paul continuously have to address in his epistles?
Do you know?
Hint: the answer links right up to the error of Hymenaeus.
1 Corin 15 some said there was no resurrection.
2 Tim. 2 some said it was past
2 Thess 2 some thought the day of Christ was at hand but Paul shot that down.
I don’t know what you are looking for just say it. Must you always be so cryptic?
And, again, if there is any "Church Age Dispensation" or "1948" or "Computerized mark" to be found in prophetic scripture, then Revelation 2-3 clearly demonstrates that Jesus knew nothing about it! There is no way around it, Postview, Since Jesus was, in your view, offering a conditional Thief's coming back in the first century, then that makes the glorified Jesus entirely ignorant of the Long Church Age Dispensation, ignorant of 1948, and ignorant of any computerized mark that is inserted into one's hand! This fact alone entirely destroys the main tenets of futurism.
Acts 7:55 Stephen saw Jesus Acts 9 Jesus appeared at least audibly to Saul. As I have said over and over Jesus can appear anytime to anyone He chooses, that is no coming of the Lord as prophesied in 1 Thess 4:16 2 Thess 2:1, Rev 19:11-14 and many others. It is my position the letters to the churches were written to 7 literal churches of that day and the problems addressed were specific to those churches and when Jesus said in Rev 2: 5 Remember therefore from whence thou art fallen, and repent, and do the first works; or else I will come unto thee quickly, and will remove thy candlestick out of his place, except thou repent. I believe in no wayrefers to a prophesied coming as listed in the passages above but is absolutely conditional and would be like the appearance to Saul.
The Thief's coming of Christ is NOT A CONDITIONAL EVENT.
Rev 2: 16 Repent; or else I will come unto thee quickly
Rev 3:3b If therefore thou shalt not watch, I will come on thee as a thief, and thou shalt not know what hour I will come upon thee.
This is what the text says, I’ll stick with that.
It is these FIRST, BASIC, ELEMENTARY PRINCIPLES, the "stoicheion" of the Mosaic Law that Peter says would burn with fervent heat, and indeed at AD 70 they did.
On what authority do you remove heavens and earth from this passage only to focus on "stoicheion"?
So again, And I'll rephrase, of the 7 uses of Stoicheion in scripture, you say 5 do not mean periodoc table, but 2 do, and you base that on?? "Because you say so" is all I can come up with from what you have written.
Ok, I won’t quibble with you on the definition of "stoicheion", but we still have the heavens and earth listed separately , do we remove those just because you say so?
2 Peter 3:5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:
Heavens and earth mentioned. Literal or symbolic? I believe literal.
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
The physical world perished in the flood, literally.
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
Literal heavens and earth reserved unto “fire” against the day of judgement.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
Soon to the Lord is obviously different that you define soon.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Maybe this accounts for the 2000 years that so concerns you.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
The literal heavens will pass away. The literal earth and works that are therein will be literally burned up along with those elements, principle or rudiments or whatever definition you place on "stoicheion".
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
All of those things will literally be burned up. Neither the heavens nor the earth were burned up in 70 AD.
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
The literal heavens will be dissolved with fire and the "stoicheion" will melt with fervent heat.
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
Since all of those things will literally be destroyed God will create “a new heavens and earth” none of which happened in 70 AD. Revelation 21:1
Heb 5:12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you need someone to teach you again
the first principles of the oracles of God; and you have come to need milk and not solid food.
Based on the context I really doubt Paul is saying “you need someone to teach you again” the mosaic law.
Perhaps you could Show me the scriptural teaching that instructs you to apply a completely polar opposite meaning to two of the 7 uses?
3 if we remove Hebrews from your list. What allows you to ignore the fact the passage says the heavens and earth will be destroyed no matter how you define elements?
Then it seems your claim is that any wounds we receive in death we will retain in our resurrected Bodies, no different from Jesus.
Once you allow for ONE difference, you argument that there can be no deviation between our resurrected bodies and Jesus' resurrected body, dissolves into the ether.
I assume you believe Jesus Today is confined to the Exact same Body that walked the earth? or Do you allow for some difference?
When do you Believe Jesus' body was Glorified? At the Resurrection? sometime later? sometime before?
What scripture supports your view?
Luke 24:39 Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.
40 And when he had thus spoken, he shewed them his hands and his feet.
41 And while they yet believed not for joy, and wondered, he said unto them, Have ye here any meat?
42 And they gave him a piece of a broiled fish, and of an honeycomb.
43 And he took it, and did eat before them.
Philippians 3:21 Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.