And your point is? I see no commandment for nations to come, nor do I see a punishment for them to not come in this scripture.
The prophecy is about what happens after Micah's time period. It's a statement of what will happen. It's rather sad that God would need to say a threat to get you to do something that is good.
Is there some reason why you think keeping the Sabbath holy is not something God would like you to do? Does God need to threaten you with punishment to get you to help old people cross the road? Sure, it was only to Israel that God specifically said they had to keep or they'd have consequences. But, did you ever think of why God did it to them?
Are you also not aware that the Sabbath still belonged to God before and after Sinai?
Here's an analogy: Let's say you live in a land in which the only law governing your family is only your rules and they can't apply to other people. You tell your kids NOT to throw paint at your car. Does it mean it's ok to you if your neighbours' kids throw paint at your car? Sure, you can punish your kids since your rules apply to them, but what about your neighbours' kids? After that, you hold a party that's invitation-only. Those neighbours' kids want to come, but they still want to throw paint at your car
because your house rules don't apply to them. Tell me, what would be your opinion of these kids? You can't tell them to stop either, since they're not your family.
This is deceptively inaccurate in that you aren't continuing on the thought of "sin's grasp" as you equate it. Paul says the LAW brought knowledge of sin, in order to bring us to realize we need Jesus as our savior. Paul also said after we are saved we no longer need the law to teach us about sin which you ignore his words upon that premise.
Ah, but weren't you just saying that the 10C can't apply to us since we're Gentiles? If it can't apply to us, then it can't benefit us by telling us what sin is.
Paul also says that Gentiles who have not the Law are in a sense not sinning because they are a "law unto themselves" or simply put they aren't sinning without the Law as their guide in the first place.
Well this is completely out of context of what he wrote. He wrote "For when Gentiles who do not have the Law
do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves".
He wasn't saying that they don't keep the law, he was saying they instinctively do what the law says.
WRONG, absolutely there is no use to force circumcision upon anyone to be less sinful it means nothing to those who are not part of Israel the only reason to circumcise people is to bind them to Israel's laws or the Law of Moses.
Huh? I was only listing the origins of all the laws they brought up at that council. The meat juice ban was Noah's time, circumcision wasn't Moses' time, but Abraham's time.
The Royal Law is NOT the Mosaic Law there is no reason for this logic as James could have easily called it the Law of Moses as James himself equates we are NOT supposed to "part out" the Law of Moses it is all or nothing.
Hm... quick question: What do you think the royal law is?
God used the Law to judge those who were under its domain, he never judged the nations around Israel using the Law when he declared Israel should attack them because their inequity had risen to much for too long (they were sinning too much).
The problem with your logic is that only Israel was judged by the Law and NO others..... NONE. One had to become part of Israel to be under the Law and that required circumcision for that to be finalized.
Was God right in punishing the other nations for their iniquity?