- Oct 17, 2013
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jan001,
1. I didn't say it couldn't be used as the Lord's timing of 1000 years as a day. I did say that it is about a physical and literal 1000 years because it happens 1000 years from the 2nd resurrection of the sinners.
2. The first resurrection is only of the tribulation saints of the second half from all indication in Revelation 20. Why Because it specifically says so and the last actual account of the tribulation is Revelation 15 of which they go to heaven. In Revelation 14 they are called the Blessed Dead and in Revelation 6 the first half tribbers that are martyrs are told to wait for their brethren to be martyred in order to be vindicated. This seems to implies that the 1st resurrection is nothing but all the tribulation saints. However, in Revelation 20:4-6 only specifically states those in Revelation 16 which are the blessed dead and those who are in the last half of the tribulation who do not take the mark of the beast. There is no mention of the church or any living saint who is raptured at this time. This is why you have to build up a false straw man. This rapture in Revelation 15 is before the 7 vials are poured out upon the beast kingdom only in Revelation 16. It is known as the WRATH OF GOD upon the earth! The 5th angel poured out his vial upon the seat of the beast; and his kingdom was full of darkness; and they gnawed their tongues for pain; And blasphemed the God of heaven because of their pains and their sores, and repented not of their deeds.
3. Just because their are metaphors in scripture there are literal examples as well. The problem is when the proper perspective is literal and it is used as symbolic and vice versa.
4. Your problem is that you use your belief of God's timing to the extreme to keep the doctrine of the true millennium is not true. You are the one who is being strictly metaphorical and leave the literal aspect out. I on the other hand say you can use both because the spiritual aspect of it's meaning is just a long amount of time so the literal can fit within that time frame.
5. If you make the 1000 years not literal as in man's time then you cannot make the day in man's time. But that is the way that it is used or at least the perception and the implication.
6. Do you think you can prove from Peter that the 1000 years is pointed straight at a literal meaning of God's timing only and connect it to the 1000 years of the tribulation.
7. You cannot connect the context of Revelation 20 with anything in the church era right now directly and specifically being the 1000 years because today is not the Day of the Lord or the Day of God. Try it.
Yes the authors knew the 1000 years was literal.You are leaning on a false premise and do not either understand Jewish belief about eternality of the covenants for them or you are just following the RC doctrine. Jerry kelso
Obviously, we will never agree on this topic.
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