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Did the Catholic Church changed the Sabbath to Sunday?

Meowzltov

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You are looking for a distinction without a difference to hang your hat on - but even your own Pope John Paul II and your own Catholic Commentary on the Baltimore Catechism admit the Lord's Day as given in the Bible -- is Saturday, the 7th day of the week, and they are firm on that point until at least the cross of Christ.
You're becoming a broken record. Everything you've said above, I've replied to many times. I refer you to my earlier posts.
 
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Meowzltov

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Well I don't share your opinion on that point.

And neither does your own Pope John Paul II or your own Commentary on the Baltimore Catechism.


================================================

QUOTE="BobRyan, post: 68473931,

...commentary on the Baltimore Catechism -

1965 -- first published 1959

(from "The Faith Explained" page 243

"
we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...

The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...

nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church

Proof that this view has been around ... for a while.


1946

In the Convert's Catechism of Catholic Doctrine, we read:
Q. Which is the Sabbath day?
A. Saturday is the Sabbath day.
Q. Why do we observe Sunday instead of Saturday?
A. We observe Sunday instead of Saturday because the Catholic Church, in the Council of Laodicea, (AD 336) transferred the solemnity from Saturday to Sunday….
Q. Why did the Catholic Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday, because Christ rose from the dead on a Sunday, and the Holy Ghost descended upon the Apostles on a Sunday.
Q. By what authority did the Church substitute Sunday for Saturday?
A. The Church substituted Sunday for Saturday by the plenitude of that divine power which Jesus Christ bestowed upon her!
—Rev. Peter Geiermann, C.SS.R., (1946), p. 50.


1566

In the Catechism of the Council of Trent,
The Church of God has thought it well to transfer the celebration and observance of the Sabbath to Sunday!
p 402, second revised edition (English), 1937. (First published in 1566)


amplification and development from the fact of the coming of the Lord in the flesh.26

2068 The Council of Trent teaches that the Ten Commandments are obligatory for Christiansand that the justified man is still bound to keep them;28 The Second Vatican Council confirms: "The bishops, successors of the apostles, receive from the Lord . . . the mission of teaching all peoples, and of preaching the Gospel to every creature, so that all men may attain salvation through faith, Baptism and the observance of the Commandments."29

(Application in James 2)
2069 The Decalogue forms a coherent whole. Each "word" refers to each of the others and to all of them; they reciprocally condition one another. the two tables shed light on one another; they form an organic unity. To transgress one commandment is to infringe all the others.30 One cannot honor another person without blessing God his Creator. One cannot adore God without loving all men, his creatures. the Decalogue brings man's religious and social life into unity.


========================================================================

As Pope John Paul II argues that "continued" view for the Sabbath Commandment - bent to point to week-day-1


Pope John Paul II

Dies Domini pt 13 -
"the Sabbath ...is therefore rooted in the depths of God's plan. This is why unlike many other laws - it is not within the context of strictly cultic (Jewish) stipulations but within the Decalogue the "ten words" which represent the very pillars of moral life inscribed on the human heart!! In setting this commandment within the context of the basic structure of ethics, Israel and then the church declare that they consider it not just a matter of community religious discipline but a defining and indelible expression of our relationship to God, announced and expounded by biblical revelations.

Notice how well that statement above fits with the other Christian groups on this topic - as noted below in the signature line?




And of course here they argue their case for "Ten Commandments NOT Abolished" -

2056 The word "Decalogue" means literally "ten words."11 God revealed these "ten words" to his people on the holy mountain. They were written "with the finger of God,"12 unlike the other commandments written by Moses.13 They are pre-eminently the words of God. They are handed on to us in the books of Exodus 14 and Deuteronomy.15 Beginning with the Old Testament, the sacred books refer to the "ten words,"16 but it is in the New Covenant in Jesus Christ that their full meaning will be revealed.

2072 Since they express man's fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbor, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations.They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. the Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.

2063.... the words of the Decalogue remain likewise for us Christians. Far from being abolished, they have received amplification and development from the fact of the coming of the Lord in the flesh.26

2068 The Council of Trent teaches that the Ten Commandments are obligatory for Christiansand that the justified man is still bound to keep them;28 The Second Vatican Council confirms: "The bishops, successors of the apostles, receive from the Lord . . . the mission of teaching all peoples, and of preaching the Gospel to every creature, so that all men may attain salvation through faith, Baptism and the observance of the Commandments."29

(Application in James 2)
2069 The Decalogue forms a coherent whole. Each "word" refers to each of the others and to all of them; they reciprocally condition one another. the two tables shed light on one another; they form an organic unity. To transgress one commandment is to infringe all the others.30 One cannot honor another person without blessing God his Creator. One cannot adore God without loving all men, his creatures. the Decalogue brings man's religious and social life into unity.


===========================

[/QUOTE][/QUOTE]
Your quote from the *commentary* on the Baltimore Catechimism is basically an informed opinion, worth as much as my own informed opinion. And as little. It carries no weight. The author talks about the Lord's Day in the OT. I say there is no Lord's Day in the OT. I've backed up my claim with evidence. Basically we are both on the same level and I've documented my opinion. i win.

THANK YOU for at last rendering the quote from the Baltimore catechism. It basically states what I've already told you, that the solemnity was switched from the Sabbath to Sunday. No surprise there.

The rest of your quotes basically say that the Catholic church follows the ten commandments. SURE. We've already discussed this. What is your question?????? You already understand that the CC observes the sabbath commandment by honoring the Lord's Day on Sunday. You don't have to like that, but that's the facts.

I don't see anything new here at all. Everything has already been discussed. Unless you have a new point or some new question, the topic is exhausted.

Unless you want to discuss my Ignatius quote. You've never dealt with it.
 
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BobRyan

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Your quote from the *commentary* on the Baltimore Catechimism is basically an informed opinion, worth as much as my own informed opinion. And as little. It carries no weight.

Except for the tiny detail that your opinion is not held forth as an ideal RCIA text is it?

Synopsis

The Faith Explained is an all-in-one handbook to help you understand, explain, and defend the great truths of the Catholic Faith. In brief and readable chapters, it explains the purpose of human existence, God and His perfections, the creation and fall of man, the Incarnation, the redemption, the sacraments, sacramentals, prayer, the importance of the Bible, and much more. Perfect for RCIA classes, this book is also a magnificent refresher course on the Faith for Catholics and an illuminating resource for non-Catholics with questions about the Church.

The following is a revue from This Rock Magazine, February 1992 issue.

Next to the New Testament there is no book that I have given more copies of to friends and inquirers.

...

I AM delighted to report that The Faith Explained is back in print. Millions of Catholics have lapsed or have been snatched up by the sects. Most have left the Church not knowing what they were leaving. Many still-practicing Catholics don't know what they believe and so are vulnerable. The Faith Explained helps all these people. I'd rank it as one of the best explanations of Catholic belief and practice you can give the average person.

I wouldn't hesitate to recommend it to any practicing Catholic who wants a clear, solid, and satisfying explanation of the faith, nor would I hesitate to give it to a lapsed Catholic, a non-Catholic, or an anti-Catholic.
...

-- Clayton F. Bower, Jr.

And of course the fact that John Paul II agrees with Leo Trese on this point about the Lord's Day being in the OT - the Sabbath Commandment of the OT - does not hurt Leo Trese as being a valid RC source.

Or... we could come here to this section of the board and just read what anybody happens to think on a given subject and "some" would argue that we are getting just as reliable info that way.

in Christ,
Bob
 
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BobRyan

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You're becoming a broken record. Everything you've said above, I've replied to many times. I refer you to my earlier posts.

I refer you to a number of my earlier posts where points are made -- and are apparently irrefutable. :)
 
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BobRyan

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And of course here they argue their case for "Ten Commandments NOT Abolished" -

2056 The word "Decalogue" means literally "ten words."11 God revealed these "ten words" to his people on the holy mountain. They were written "with the finger of God,"12 unlike the other commandments written by Moses.13 They are pre-eminently the words of God. They are handed on to us in the books of Exodus 14 and Deuteronomy.15 Beginning with the Old Testament, the sacred books refer to the "ten words,"16 but it is in the New Covenant in Jesus Christ that their full meaning will be revealed.

2072 Since they express man's fundamental duties towards God and towards his neighbor, the Ten Commandments reveal, in their primordial content, grave obligations.They are fundamentally immutable, and they oblige always and everywhere. No one can dispense from them. the Ten Commandments are engraved by God in the human heart.

2063.... the words of the Decalogue remain likewise for us Christians. Far from being abolished, they have received amplification and development from the fact of the coming of the Lord in the flesh.26

2068 The Council of Trent teaches that the Ten Commandments are obligatory for Christiansand that the justified man is still bound to keep them;28 The Second Vatican Council confirms: "The bishops, successors of the apostles, receive from the Lord . . . the mission of teaching all peoples, and of preaching the Gospel to every creature, so that all men may attain salvation through faith, Baptism and the observance of the Commandments."29

(Application in James 2)
2069 The Decalogue forms a coherent whole. Each "word" refers to each of the others and to all of them; they reciprocally condition one another. the two tables shed light on one another; they form an organic unity. To transgress one commandment is to infringe all the others.30 One cannot honor another person without blessing God his Creator. One cannot adore God without loving all men, his creatures. the Decalogue brings man's religious and social life into unity.


===========================


Your quote from the *commentary* on the Baltimore Catechimism is basically an informed opinion, worth as much as my own informed opinion. And as little. It carries no weight. The author talks about the Lord's Day in the OT. I say there is no Lord's Day in the OT. I've backed up my claim with evidence. Basically we are both on the same level and I've documented my opinion. i win.

THANK YOU for at last rendering the quote from the Baltimore catechism. It basically states what I've already told you, that the solemnity was switched from the Sabbath to Sunday. No surprise there.

The rest of your quotes basically say that the Catholic church follows the ten commandments. SURE. We've already discussed this. What is your question??????

Not a question - an observation in keeping with the title of this thread. The RCC changed the commandment - pointing it to week day 1 - and so now they still affirm all TEN of the TEN commandments - because they have edited/repointed the Sabbath Commandment.

And as both John Paul II and Leo Trese point out - this means they took the Lord's Day as given by God in the OT - in the TEN Commandments and repointed that Sabbath commandment to week-day-1.

Hence the title of this thread and the applicability of the facts so often quoted
 
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Meowzltov

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And of course the fact that John Paul II agrees with Leo Trese on this point about the Lord's Day being in the OT - the Sabbath Commandment of the OT - does not hurt Leo Trese as being a valid RC source.

Or... we could come here to this section of the board and just read what anybody happens to think on a given subject and "some" would argue that we are getting just as reliable info that way.
I've replied to all your points. If you have any questions, i refer you to my previous posts. If you would like to address my ignatius post, I'm game for that. Otherwise, it would seem we have exhausted the subject.
 
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Meowzltov

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Hence the title of this thread and the applicability of the facts so often quoted
I've replied to all your points on more than one occasion. If you want to reply to my Ignatius quote, that would be great. Otherwise, there is no reason for you to keep pounding the sand.
 
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BobRyan

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I've taught RCIA.

Ok but I think you would agree that if instead of quoting Pope John Paul II and Leo Trese - on the teaching about the Lord's Day in the OT - from an RC perspective - I simply posted "well here is what someone who has at some time taught an RCIA class says..." it would fall something short of Pope John Paul II for acceptability to readers in general.

Not saying you need to accept my sources.

In any case you have agreed that the RCC continues to accept TEN Commandments and that the Sabbath Commandment authority is transferred to week-day-1 by the RCC which seems to be the point related to the title of this thread that I was also making.
 
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BobRyan

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I've replied to all your points on more than one occasion. If you want to reply to my Ignatius quote, that would be great. Otherwise, there is no reason for you to keep pounding the sand.
 
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BobRyan

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I've replied to all your points on more than one occasion. If you want to reply to my Ignatius quote, that would be great. .

I did ask you how a quote that makes no reference to the Lord's Day at all is supposed to refute the point John Paul II makes about the Lord's Day in the OT. Did you respond to that?
 
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BobRyan

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His letter to the Magnesians.

Yes but what good does it do since he makes no reference to the Lord's day in that text? We were talking about the Lord's day in the OT - and you brought up Ignatius - as if he had said "The Lord's Day did not exist in the OT times".
 
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Meowzltov

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Ok but I think you would agree that if instead of quoting Pope John Paul II and Leo Trese - on the teaching about the Lord's Day in the OT - from an RC perspective - I simply posted "well here is what someone who has at some time taught an RCIA class says..." it would fall something short of Pope John Paul II for acceptability to readers in general.
What I'm trying to explain to you, if you would LISTEN, is that the person who wrote the commentary has NO AUTHORITY, just like I have no authority. I'm completely free to disregard him, and I do in fact disregard him. He is an idiot.
 
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Meowzltov

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I did ask you how a quote that makes no reference to the Lord's Day at all is supposed to refute the point John Paul II makes about the Lord's Day in the OT. Did you respond to that?
Yes, I did respond. I requoted the text, and highlighted in bold red where he mentions the Lord's Day. You said Ignatius did not mention the Lord's Day. Clearly you were wrong.
 
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Meowzltov

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Yes but what good does it do since he makes no reference to the Lord's day in that text? We were talking about the Lord's day in the OT - and you brought up Ignatius - as if he had said "The Lord's Day did not exist in the OT times".
I posted you the quote a second time with "the Lord's day" highlighted in red to refute you. Here it is a
THIRD time:::

"[T]hose who were brought up in the ancient order of things [i.e. Jews] have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord’s day, on which also our life has sprung up again by him and by his death" (Letter to the Magnesians 8 [A.D. 110]).
 
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BobRyan

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I posted you the quote a second time with "the Lord's day" highlighted in red to refute you. Here it is a
THIRD time:::

"[T]hose who were brought up in the ancient order of things [i.e. Jews] have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord’s day, on which also our life has sprung up again by him and by his death" (Letter to the Magnesians 8 [A.D. 110]).

1. As with all the Ignatius "fakes" / forged and fake letters, there are interpolations and inserts "added" (details made up) in the Magnesian letter giving us a blatant mistranslation "Lord's Day"

2. And you never show how this quote - even if the added/inserted "Lord's Day" text is accepted - proves that the Lord's Day was not given by God in the OT just as even Pope John Paul II and Leo Trese's "The Faith Explained" both admit.

======================================================
The discussion concerning this passage in Kitto's Encyclopedia of Biblical Literature (article Lord's-day) is so full that it is here quoted somewhat at length as follows:

"But we must here notice one other passage of earlier date than any of these, which has often been referred to as bearing on the subject of the Lord's-day, though it certainly contains no mention of it. It occurs in the Epistle of Ignatius to the Magnesians (about A.D. 100). The whole passage is confessedly obscure, and the text may be corrupt. It has, however, been understood in a totally different sense, and as referring to a distinct subject; and such we confess appears to us to be the most obvious and natural construction of it.

Then follows an analysis of the Greek text, showing that interpolating (adding) the word "day" does violence to the Grammatical construction, and to the obvious meaning of the passage. After such an analysis the Encyclopedia adds the following translation of the passage:

"If those who lived under the old dispensation have come to the newness of hope, no longer keeping Sabbaths, but living according to our Lord's life, (in which, as it were, our life has risen again, through him, and his death, [which some deny], through whom we have received the mystery, etc., . . . ) how shall we be able to live without him?" etc.

In this way (allowing for the involved style of the whole) the meaning seems to us simple, consistent, and grammatical, without any gratuitous introduction of words understood; and this view has been followed by many, though it is a subject on which considerable controversy has existed. On this view, the passage does not refer at all to the Lord's-day; but even on the opposite supposition, it cannot be regarded as affording any positive evidence to the early use of the term "Lord’s-day" (for which it is often cited) since the material word it hemera – day - is purely conjectural.It however offers an instance of that species of contrast, which the Early Fathers were so fond of drawing between the Christian and Jewish dispensations, and between the new life of the Christian and the ceremonial spirit of the law, to which the Lord's-day (if it be imagined to be referred to) is represented as opposed."

The foregoing rendering and interpretation are fully sustained by a late writer of high authority concerning Sunday, James Augustus Hessey, D. C. L. Relative to the passage under consideration he says:

"Ignatius, the disciple of St. John, is the first writer whom I shall quote. Here is a passage from his Epistle to the Magnesians, containing, as you will observe, a contrast between Judaism and Christianity, and, as an exemplification of it, an opposition between sabbatizing and living the life of the Lord …. If they, then, who were concerned in old things, arrived at a newness of hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living according to the Lord's life, by which our life sprung up by him, and by his death, (whom certain persons deny,) . . . how can we live without him, whose disciples even the prophets were, and in spirit waited for Him as their teacher? Wherefore, He whom they justly waited for, when He came, raised them up from the dead. . . . We have been made His disciples, let us live according to Christianity. (Bampton Lectures, preached before the University of Oxford, in the year 1860, p. 41.)

Sir William Domville makes the following just criticism:

"It seems not a little strange that the Archbishop should so widely depart from the literal translation, which is this: "No longer observing Sabbaths, but living according to the Lord's life, in which also our life is sprung up." For there is no phrase or word in the original which corresponds to the phrase, "the Lord's-day," or to the word "keeping." In a note referring to this word, the Archbishop says: "Or living according to;" so that he acknowledges this translation would be correct, but the consequence of his throwing it into a note is to lead the reader to suppose that, though the original may be so translated, the preferable translation is that which is given in the text, when in truth, so far from being a preferable translation it is no translation at all. (Sabbath, etc., p. 242.)



This examination of the passage has been made thus full in order to show that there is no reference to Sunday-keeping except by a fraudulent and unscholarly translation, and by interpolation. The examination has also proceeded upon the supposition that the Epistle is genuine. That it is not genuine will fully appear from the following testimony:


Dr. Killen gives the following history of the Epistles ascribed to Ignatius:

"In the sixteenth century, fifteen letters were brought out from beneath the hoary mantle of antiquity, and offered to the world as the productions of the pastor of Antioch. Scholars refused to receive them on the terms required, and forthwith eight of them were admitted to be forgeries. In the seventeenth century, the seven remaining letters, in a somewhat altered form, again came forth from obscurity, and claimed to be the works of Ignatius. Again discerning critics refused to acknowledge their pretensions; but curiosity was aroused by this second apparition, and many expressed an earnest desire to obtain a sight of the real Epistles. Greece, Syria, Palestine, and Egypt were ransacked in search of them, and at length three letters are found. The discovery creates general gratulation; it is confessed that four of the Epistles, so lately asserted to be genuine, are apocryphal, and it is boldly said that the three now forthcoming are above challenge. But truth still refuses to be compromised, and sternly disowns these claimants for her approbation. The internal evidence of these three Epistles abundantly attests that, like the last three books of the Sibyl, they are only the last shifts of a grave imposture. (Ancient Church, sec. 2, chap. 3.)

In a note, Doctor Killen adds that "Bunsen rather reluctantly admits that the highest literary authority of the last century, the late Dr. Neander, declined to recognize even the Syriac version of the Ignatian Epistles."


Rev. Lyman Coleman testifies in the following words:

"Certain it is that these Epistles, if not an entire forgery, are so filled with interpolations and forgeries as to be of no historical value with reference to the primitive Christians and the apostolic churches. (Ancient Christianity Exemplified, chap. 1, see. 2, p. 48.)


John Calvin says:

"Nothing can be more absurd than the impertinences which have been published under the name of Ignatius. (Institutes, Book 1, chap. 13.)



Rev. Roswell D. Hitchcock, D. D., late Professor of Church History in Union Theological Seminary, in an article on the "Origin and Growth of Episcopacy," sums up the case as follows:

"1. Killen, the Irish Presbyterian, thinks these Ignatian Epistles all spurious, but is of the opinion that the Syriac three were the first to be forged in the time of Origen [185 - 254 A. D.], soon after which they were translated into Greek, and others were added before the time of Eusebius, who is admitted to have had the seven.

2. Baur and Hilgenfeld think them all spurious, but are of the opinion that the seven of the shorter Greek recensions were the first to be forged after 150 A.D., and that the Syriac three are simply fragmentary translations from the Greek.

3. Cureton, Bunsen, Ritschel, and Lipsius contend for the Genuineness of the Syriac three. This as the matter now stands, appears to be the weakest position of all.

4. A strong array of the ablest and soundest critics, both Roman Catholic and Protestant, such is Moehler and Gieseler, Hefele and Uhlhorn, may still be found on the side of the shorter Greek recension." (American Presbyterian and Theological Review, January, 1867.)
=============================================

Whether or not you accept that the work is forged - the fact is that the term "Lord's Day" is only to be read in the document by ADDING the word "Day" to it.
 
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Meowzltov

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2. And you never show how this quote - even if the added/inserted "Lord's Day" text is accepted - proves that the Lord's Day was not given by God in the OT just as even Pope John Paul II and Leo Trese's "The Faith Explained" both admit.
I have replied to all of this.
 
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Meowzltov

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1. As with all the Ignatius "fakes" / forged and fake letters, there are interpolations and inserts "added" (details made up) in the Magnesian letter giving us a blatant mistranslation "Lord's Day"
You have supplied at least some evidence (thank you) that the ignatius quote is fraudulant but it is not convincing. I would have to examine who it is that is making these claims. For example, how do I know that your sources are not simply men who are like you, driven to deem that the Lord's day is the sabbath and unwilling to admit a text that divides the lord's day from the sabbath?
 
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