Calvinist commentator, William Hendricksen, agrees with me and disagrees with you. What does 'world' mean in John 3:16? Hendriksen states:
The term world, as here used, must mean mankind which, tough sin-laden, exposed to the judgment, and in need of salvation (see verse 16b and verse 17), is still the object of his care. God's image is still, to a degree, reflected in the children of men....
By reason of the context and other passages in which a similar thought is expressed ... it is probable that also here in 3;16 the term indicates fallen mankind in its international aspect: men from every tribe and nation; not only Jews but also Gentiles. This is in harmony with the thought expressed repeatedly in the Fourth Gospel (including this very chapter) to the effect that physical ancestry has nothing to do with entrance into the kingdom of heaven: 1;12, 13; 3:6; 8:31-29 (Hendriksen 1953:140, emphasis in original).
So are you going to say that William Hendriksen, the Calvinist commentator, got it badly wrong and 'world' in John 3:16 does not refer to the world of mankind?
Why don't you reference your sources? It is obvious you obtained some of this information from other sources. Why have you not given them credit?
In Christ,
Oz
Works consulted
Hendriksen, W 1953.
New Testament commentary: Exposition of the Gospel according to John (2 vols complete in 1). Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic.