This.
People should think a little bit about where the rules and conventions and the reality of mathematics come from before giving it as an example of clear and uncontested truths.
There is a reason a lot of mathematicians are Platonists.
This is nonsense.
One does not require any knowledge of set theory or whatever to understand why 2+2 equals 4 and not 5. If you know what 2, 4, 5 and "+" means, you know all you need to know.
I actually did the experiment yesterday. I was babysitting my 7-year old nephew and decided to ask him. Honestly, I was not expecting success, but the little bugger has a habbit of blowing me away with his wit.
I asked him how much 2+2 is. He answered "4" very confidently (and very proud, haha). I asked him why he is so sure about that and if it isn't 5 instead.
His first reaction was being a bit baffled as to why I asked that quesiton... he was all like "well, because it's 4? it's just so?".
I then asked him to try and explain to me why it is 4, how he knows it is 4.
He had to think about it for a bit. He then came up with the idea of place 2 of the cars he was playing with on the table. He said "these are 2 cars". He then added 2 more cars to it and told me "now count them".
I applauded and gave him an ice cream.

The little dude has no clue about set theory or axioms or whatever. Math is developed to reflect reality, not the other way round.
As far as the original question, I don't consider that what Islam teaches philosophically to be very credible, so that weighs against the book being real.
I'm asking for a rational reason. Saying "i don't consider it credible" is not an answer to the question "why don't you consider it credible?"
I also think that the story of how it was delivered is pretty questionable - we have one man who apparently was told the whole thing by an angel. No one else was there.
Who was there when Moses received his 10 commandments? Or when he spoke to a burning talking bush?
Also, the quran knows many prophets. Including Abraham, Mozes, and Jesus.
All of the things I might look to to corroborate his story, directly or indirectly, are not in evidence.
Agreed. So, how is this different from the bible?
If we consider what a purely historical explanation might be - that Mohammed, for some reason, combined what he had heard from Christian heretics with the religious beliefs of his people
Islam has a lot less in common with the religions of the pre-islamic arabs then Christianity with the religions of the pagans it spread too. Christmass comes to mind.
On the other hand, the Bible was produced in an altogether different way.
So, is the way something is produced an indicator of it being right or wrong? Isn't that exactly what the genetic fallacy is all about? Judging an idea by its origins?
Unlike Islam, we don't believe that it is literally God's truth word for word
Just as a sidenote: several christians on this board would disagree with that. But in context of your answer, that off course doesn't matter here. I just thought I'ld slip that in.
It represents not just what one person says happened, but the OT is the whole experience of entire people over a long period of time
And you consider this claimed history to be supported by extra-biblical evidence?
and the NT is the witness accounts of other people.
Or so it claims. Can you support this with evidence?
It also isn't a book alone, it is the product of a community of witnesses where many claimed eyewitness and ever deeply personal experience with Christ.
I know what it
claims. The question is about the credibility of those claims.
That is a different sort of thing than one man alone taught be an angel
Yes, the bible and the quran are different books with different claims.
I don't see how "many unkown authors" make a story more or less credible then "one known author".
Philosophically what it teaches is not only credible, it solves some of the serious problems philosophers had been struggling with for years, not only in the abstract but, if it is true, in a concrete sense.
Please be a little more specific. This is written so vaguely and so abstract that you could be talking about either book.
Of course the accounts of witnesses to historical events are what they are - they can never really be proven. But some are more credible than others.
Why are some more credible then others?
You didn't answer my question.
You asserted one is more credible then the other, but you didn't explain why.
You also asserted some stuff about the origin of both books, but you didn't explain why that matters in terms of credibility.
I thought you were about to explain it at one point, but all I got was a very abstract vague statement that could be applied to either book. Please elaborate on the vague and abstract statement and be specific.
Thanks for the attempt though. At this point, I'ld say yours is the best attempt till now. But still not anywhere near actually meeting my challenge.