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Misusing Godwin's "Law" -- Post your pseudo-fallacy pet peeves here!

poolerboy0077

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Many people too often invoke Godwin's Law inappropriately. This thread will deal with Godwin's Law Nazis (see wut i did thur?) and encourage all of you to post your own pseudo-fallacious assertions here.

For those unfamiliar with the adage, Godwin's Law was an assertion made by attorney and author Mike Godwin stating that: "As an online discussion grows longer, the probability of a comparison involving Nazis or Hitler approaches 1."

Many people have taken this and applied it to any online conversation where a Nazi or Hitler comparison was made so as to either rebut or even end an argument. Unfortunately, online uses of Nazi or Hitler analogies have come to be seen by many people as a sign that someone has lost the debate.

Firstly, it's not an actual law of logic, such as the law of non-contradiction or the law of the excluded middle. It's simply a tongue-in-cheek observation that, given enough time, in any online conversation (regardless of the topic or scope) someone will inevitably make a comparison to Hitler or the Nazis. That's it. The fact that people treat it as an actual law of some sort speaks to their lack of critical and analytical skills when it comes to rules of thought and argument. Call anything a "law" and get enough people to invoke it and many will unquestioningly accept it as a formal fallacy of sorts. For this reason I shall make my own law:

  • Pooler's Law will describe the following: "As an online discussion grows longer and a Hitler or Nazi comparison is made, the probability of someone foolishly—and smugly—invoking Godwin's Law to undermine or end an argument and claim victory approaches 1."
Secondly, and as should now be somewhat apparent, not every Hitler or Nazi reference in a debate or conversation is inherently fallacious. Of course Mike Godwin is correct to point out that such repeated use of said comparisons tends to trivialize the Holocaust. And there are certainly inappropriate uses of such comparisons. For example, if someone were to demonize another person's position by arguing that they or their position is factually wrong on account of having a connection to Nazis or Hitler in some way, this would constitute a fallacy of guilt by association. Essentially the person is smuggling in an ad hominem fallacy to try to divert attention away from the person's argument by attacking their character in irrelevant ways. If Satan himself were to appear to us and state that the sky is blue or the Earth round, there is no reason we should render his assertion false simply because he is the devil.

Some analogies are good and others not so much, but a mere mention of Nazis or Hitler without any context does not inform us as to whether or not their use was appropriate. The inappropriate use of Godwin's Law is in a way committing the same error that a person's ad hominem use of Hitler or Nazi comparisons is doing: they're trying to stop the debate by erecting a type of distraction and thereby censor the other person, insinuating that all they were doing was engaging in pure hyperbole.

If Godwin's Law should teach us anything at all it is that, firstly, we should become aware of the temptation to abuse clichéd analogies that may actually make our argument lose impact and, secondly, that such overused analogies can trivialize the severity of the analogue itself.

Godwin help us if I should find another misuse of this on these forums.


Please post your own pseudo-fallacy pet peeves! :p
 

Chesterton

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First of all, what are you some kind of fascist?! :mad:

Seriously, I disagree. It is perfectly legitimate to compare one thing with another thing because sometimes things have things in common.

Ever heard the word "Dickensian"? This is when something has something in common with the ideas, style or something else related to the work of Charles Dickens. There's nothing wrong with complaining, for example, that something is "Nazi-istic" (because some things are Nazi-istic) so long as you are accurate, and not merely trying to insult.
 
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poolerboy0077

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First of all, what are you some kind of fascist?! :mad:

Seriously, I disagree. It is perfectly legitimate to compare one thing with another thing because sometimes things have things in common.

Ever heard the word "Dickensian"? This is when something has something in common with the ideas, style or something else related to the work of Charles Dickens. There's nothing wrong with complaining, for example, that something is "Nazi-istic" (because some things are Nazi-istic) so long as you are accurate, and not merely trying to insult.
Obviously you didn't read my post. You're making my point.
 
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Chesterton

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Obviously you didn't read my post. You're making my point.

My bad the way I worded that. I meant I disagree with the tactical use of the so-called Godwin's law. Yes I generally agree with your post. Sorry.
 
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quatona

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"Godwin´s law" doesn´t describe a fallacy, to begin with.
The fallacy most often committed when Hitler is being brought up is the association fallacy.

A pet peeve of mine (although not a fallacy, either):
People often say here "I don´t know it this is a Poe or not" when they mean to say "I don´t know if this guy is describing his (fundamentist) belief or making a parody of (fundamentalist) beliefs".
If you "don´t know if it´s a Poe" then it is a Poe (an example for Poe´s law at work).
 
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isleof

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Many people too often invoke Godwin's Law inappropriately. This thread will deal with Godwin's Law Nazis (see wut i did thur?) and encourage all of you to post your own pseudo-fallacious assertions here.

For those unfamiliar with the adage, Godwin's Law was an assertion made by attorney and author Mike Godwin stating that: "As an online discussion grows longer, the probability of a comparison involving Nazis or Hitler approaches 1."

Many people have taken this and applied it to any online conversation where a Nazi or Hitler comparison was made so as to either rebut or even end an argument. Unfortunately, online uses of Nazi or Hitler analogies have come to be seen by many people as a sign that someone has lost the debate.

Firstly, it's not an actual law of logic, such as the law of non-contradiction or the law of the excluded middle. It's simply a tongue-in-cheek observation that, given enough time, in any online conversation (regardless of the topic or scope) someone will inevitably make a comparison to Hitler or the Nazis. That's it. The fact that people treat it as an actual law of some sort speaks to their lack of critical and analytical skills when it comes to rules of thought and argument. Call anything a "law" and get enough people to invoke it and many will unquestioningly accept it as a formal fallacy of sorts. For this reason I shall make my own law:

  • Pooler's Law will describe the following: "As an online discussion grows longer and a Hitler or Nazi comparison is made, the probability of someone foolishly—and smugly—invoking Godwin's Law to undermine or end an argument and claim victory approaches 1."
Secondly, and as should now be somewhat apparent, not every Hitler or Nazi reference in a debate or conversation is inherently fallacious. Of course Mike Godwin is correct to point out that such repeated use of said comparisons tends to trivialize the Holocaust. And there are certainly inappropriate uses of such comparisons. For example, if someone were to demonize another person's position by arguing that they or their position is factually wrong on account of having a connection to Nazis or Hitler in some way, this would constitute a fallacy of guilt by association. Essentially the person is smuggling in an ad hominem fallacy to try to divert attention away from the person's argument by attacking their character in irrelevant ways. If Satan himself were to appear to us and state that the sky is blue or the Earth round, there is no reason we should render his assertion false simply because he is the devil.

Some analogies are good and others not so much, but a mere mention of Nazis or Hitler without any context does not inform us as to whether or not their use was appropriate. The inappropriate use of Godwin's Law is in a way committing the same error that a person's ad hominem use of Hitler or Nazi comparisons is doing: they're trying to stop the debate by erecting a type of distraction and thereby censor the other person, insinuating that all they were doing was engaging in pure hyperbole.

If Godwin's Law should teach us anything at all it is that, firstly, we should become aware of the temptation to abuse clichéd analogies that may actually make our argument lose impact and, secondly, that such overused analogies can trivialize the severity of the analogue itself.

Godwin help us if I should find another misuse of this on these forums.


Please post your own pseudo-fallacy pet peeves! :p

God wins. No pun intended kiddos.
 
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Sayre

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I can't stand it when people claim they are the victim of an ad hom, when in reality, they are just being called names.

Calling you an idiot, doesn't mean I've committed a logical fallacy.

Suggesting that your argument is wrong BECAUSE of something to do with your person, rather than your argument, is an ad hom.

This is not an ad hom >> Gott, you are a blitherinig fool.
This is an ad hom >> Gott argued "A", and since Gott is a fundie, then "A" is wrong.
 
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quatona

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I can't stand it when people claim they are the victim of an ad hom, when in reality, they are just being called names.

Calling you an idiot, doesn't mean I've committed a logical fallacy.

Suggesting that your argument is wrong BECAUSE of something to do with your person, rather than your argument, is an ad hom.

This is not an ad hom >> Gott, you are a blitherinig fool.
This is an ad hom >> Gott argued "A", and since Gott is a fundie, then "A" is wrong.
Not to put too fine a point to it - but "you are a blithering fool" is ad hominem (addressing the person rather than the argument), though not an ad hominem fallacy.
 
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quatona

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Right - I was being brief.

My point was: Maybe some people who say "ad hominem" are not being brief. :)

[IOW: I think it´s perfectly legitimate to criticize the fact that someone is addressing the person rather than the argument (simply because this doesn´t belong in a discussion or debate) even if it´s not an ad hominem fallacy.]
 
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Sayre

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My point was: Maybe some people who say "ad hominem" are not being brief. :)

[IOW: I think it´s perfectly legitimate to criticize the fact that someone is addressing the person rather than the argument (simply because this doesn´t belong in a discussion or debate) even if it´s not an ad hominem fallacy.]

I think you are splitting hairs. The OP wanted to talk about misusing fallacies. I was pointing out that an insult was not an ad hom fallacy. I think my point was valid.

Whether or not it is appropriate to use an ad hom (insult) at all is a different matter altogether. We are talking about fallacies, not manners.
 
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