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Which New Testament Text has been kept pure?

canisee

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So...just taking you post at face value, would it be safe to say that since you accept it "as is", you also believe that you canot be saved without being baptized?

God Bless

Till all are one.

The thief next to Jesus went to Glory.

For those that have an opportunity, it is obedience
to perform Mikvah.

I also have studied the original Jewish meaning and intention
of Baptism. I could go on for days about that, but I will not.

I never like to engage on Internet Forums with arguments
and interpretation.

I do not know how my simple post invoked this question.

I would love to sit with you, alone one-on-one and talk and share.

In Christ,

Canisee
 
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DeaconDean

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The thief next to Jesus went to Glory.

For those that have an opportunity, it is obedience
to perform Mikvah.

I also have studied the original Jewish meaning and intention
of Baptism. I could go on for days about that, but I will not.

I never like to engage on Internet Forums with arguments
and interpretation.

I do not know how my simple post invoked this question.

I would love to sit with you, alone one-on-one and talk and share.

In Christ,

Canisee

Its not a question of sitting alone, its a simple question based on what you said earlier.

I just asked a question.

Since you said:

I have pulled up the Greek, Wycliffe, Geneva, Tyndale etc.

To me, most all say the same thing.

To me, it's obvious that you take the scriptures "as-is". Without any question as to whether or not some might not belong in the scriptures.

If you believe them all to be included, it is a foregone conclusion that you believe Mark 16:9-20 belongs in the canon of scriptures.

And since they do, it is obvious just from a cursory reading that there is something lacking in Jesus' finished work on the cross.

Mark 16:16 goes against what Jesus said to the thief on the cross.

Mark 16:16 goes against what Paul taught in Romans 10:9-10.

Mark 16:16 says: belief plus baptism equals salvation.

That is not what Jesus taught, nor is it in line with what Paul taught.

I just wanted to know if you accepted Mark 16:9-20 as part of the canon.

And if you do, how do you explain belief plus baptism equals salvation according to Mark, when it runs counter to what Jesus and Paul taught.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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J

Jack Koons

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Mark 16:16 does not contradict salvation by faith; it compliments it. Most people focus on Mark 16:16a, and forget there is a Mark 16:16 b.

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

There are many who say "I believe, I believe"!, but have no desire to be baptized. Why is baptism so important? Because it is the person's PUBLIC profession of FAITH!

Matthew 10:32&33
32 Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven.
33 But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.

While baptism is not the 'cleansing' act of salvation, it is accomplished by the same means as salvation. If one does not have the faith to obey Christ in baptism; that is the very first denial of Christ, and clear evidence that there also was no 'godly sorrow' that worked repentance (2 Cor.7:10 For godly sorrow worketh repentance to salvation not to be repented of: but the sorrow of the world worketh death.)

The entire Christian life is by the same 'path', FAITH. Faith is believing. Baptism is the first step of obedience AFTER salvation: hence; if a person does not get baptized, it is because they do not believe. Hence, "but he that believeth not shall be damned.'


The focus of this text is believing in Christ; first for salvation (faith shown by baptism), followed by a life of service to our Lord, all rooted in FAITH. If a person does not believe, he or she she will not be saved, or do anything else that is powered by faith.

Again, no contradiction, only a teaching that compliments both salvation, and a life of service to follow.

Jack
 
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DeaconDean

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More fuel for the fire.

In the KJV (TR) Luke 2:14 reads:

"Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men."

Although...that is not entirely correct. Often one of the most misunderstood verses in the NT.

In the Greek, we read:

"Δόξα ἐν ὑψίστοις θεῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς εἰρήνη ἐν ἀνθρώποις εὐδοκίας"

Craig Blomberg points out:

Verse 14 (the Gloria in Excelsis - Latin for "glory in the highest") has also been much understood. The best textual evidence supports not "on earth, peace, good will toward men" (KJV) but "on earth peace to men of good will," with the concept behind "men of good will" being "people on whom God's favor rests."

Jesus and the Gospels, Craig Blomberg, Broadman and Holman Publishers, Nashville, Tenn, 1997, Part 4, A Survey of the Life of Christ, Chapter 11, The Birth And Childhood of Jesus, Luke's Infancy Narrative (Luke 1-2), The Birth and Growth of Jesus (2:1-52), p. 206

The Greek text; "ἀνθρώποις εὐδοκίας" indeed does render/translate out as: "men whom God is well pleased".

2. delight, pleasure, satisfaction: with the genitive of the thing that pleases, 2 Thessalonians 1:11; ἐν ἀνθρώποις εὐδοκία, either among men pleasure produced by salvation, or God's pleasure in men, Luke 2:14 R G Tr marginal reading WH marginal reading; ἄνθρωποι εὐδοκίας, men in whom God is well pleased (i. e. not a particular class of men (viz. believers), but the whole race, contemplated as blessed in Christ's birth), Luke 2:14. L T Tr text WH text (see WH's Appendix at the passage; Field, Otium Norv. iii. at the passage) (Psalm 144:16 (); Sir. 9:12).

Source

However, "of good will" may also be accepted. But...since "εὐδοκίας" is a noun, feminine, singular, and genitive, it would translate "of/in/with, etc.". Thus making it a prepositional phrase.

It is generally translated into English with a prepositional phrase starting with the word "of".

Source

How did the KJ translators, using Erasmus' Textus Receptus get so wrong?

As Arsenio Hall so often said:



Arsenio Hall said:
Things that make you go Hmmmm.

Points to ponder.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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canisee

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Mark 16:16 does not contradict salvation by faith; it compliments it. Most people focus on Mark 16:16a, and forget there is a Mark 16:16 b.

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

There are many who say "I believe, I believe"!, but have no desire to be baptized. Why is baptism so important? Because it is the person's PUBLIC profession of FAITH!

Matthew 10:32&33
32 Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven.
33 But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.

While baptism is not the 'cleansing' act of salvation, it is accomplished by the same means as salvation. If one does not have the faith to obey Christ in baptism; that is the very first denial of Christ, and clear evidence that there also was no 'godly sorrow' that worked repentance (2 Cor.7:10 For godly sorrow worketh repentance to salvation not to be repented of: but the sorrow of the world worketh death.)

The entire Christian life is by the same 'path', FAITH. Faith is believing. Baptism is the first step of obedience AFTER salvation: hence; if a person does not get baptized, it is because they do not believe. Hence, "but he that believeth not shall be damned.'


The focus of this text is believing in Christ; first for salvation (faith shown by baptism), followed by a life of service to our Lord, all rooted in FAITH. If a person does not believe, he or she she will not be saved, or do anything else that is powered by faith.

Again, no contradiction, only a teaching that compliments both salvation, and a life of service to follow.

Jack
Excellent post. :thumbsup::amen:
 
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J

Jack Koons

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DeaconDean,

In another thread, (I will use your terminology so you will understand without offense), I defended the position of 1 John 5:7 as belonging in God's Word. I was given an outline by my opponents that was the work of a supposed 'authority' on the matter. I gave my opponents an opportunity to do their 'homework' and find out whether their “source” argument was valid; they chose not to do any further research. This proved to be fatal. The first point of the outline was shown (with supporting documentation) to be misleading at best; while the remaining points were shown to be completely false (again with supporting documentation). Additionally, the well known story about Erasmus, Froy (or Roy) and Manuscript #61 was proven (again with documentation) to be false.

You have now decided to present one so-called contradiction after another to disprove the KJV. You have even gone so far as to say in this very thread,

“To me, it's obvious that you take the scriptures "as-is". Without any question as to whether or not some might not belong in the scriptures.

If you believe them all to be included, it is a foregone conclusion that you believe Mark 16:9-20 belongs in the canon of scriptures.

And since they do, it is obvious just from a cursory reading that there is something lacking in Jesus' finished work on the cross.

Mark 16:16 goes against what Jesus said to the thief on the cross.

Mark 16:16 goes against what Paul taught in Romans 10:9-10.

Mark 16:16 says: belief[bless and do not curse]plus[bless and do not curse]baptism equals salvation.

That is not what Jesus taught, nor is it in line with what Paul taught.

I just wanted to know if you accepted Mark 16:9-20 as part of the canon.

And if you do, how do you explain belief plus baptism equals salvation according to Mark, when it runs counter to what Jesus and Paul taught.

God Bless

Till all are one.”



This is the line that I like:


“To me, it's obvious that you take the scriptures "as-is". Without any question as to whether or not some might not belong in the scriptures.”


I would like to share with you some words by an old friend of mine, Dr. Thomas Cassidy (Retired now, formerly, Pastor of First Baptist Church of Spring Valley, CA; President of the San Diego Baptist Theological Seminary and Bible Institute).

HTML document

The following excerpts were taken from the above site:

“The King James Bible was not translated by any one man, or even by one group of men, but by six groups, or committees, meeting in the cities of Cambridge, Westminster, and Oxford, England. These men began their work in 1604 and completed it in 1611. In the cities of Westminster and Oxford there was one committee on the New Testament in each city. In Cambridge there was a committee on the Old Testament and one for the Aprocrypha. Yes, the original committee for the translation of the King James Bible included the Apocrypha, however, the translators did not believe the Apocrypha was inspired, but translated these non-canonical books because of their historical significance. These six committees were made up of fifty-seven men altogether, each committee having about ten men on it. I believe these fifty-seven men were superior to any man or committee of men that has translated any Bible since the translation of the King James Bible. By way of illustration let's look at the qualifications of just a few of these great men.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. John Hardinge headed up the Oxford Group. Dr. Hardinge was Regius Professor of Hebrew at Oxford.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. John Reynolds, the originator of the translation project, who presented the idea to the commission appointed by King James to study divisions in the Church of England, died before the Authorized Version was published.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Richard Brett was one of the world's foremost experts in Latin, Greek, Chaldee, Arabic and Ethioptic languages.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. John Harmer, Professor of Greek at Oxford was a noted linguist having mastered not only Greek, but Latin and Hebrew as well.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Edward Lively, Regius Professor of Hebrew at Cambridge, died in 1605 before the work was truly begun.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Lawrence Chaderton was skilled in Greek and Hebrew, and a student of the ancient Jewish writings called "The Rabbis."[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Thomas Harrison was noted for his skill in Hebrew and Greek idioms.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Robert Spalding, successor to Dr. Lively as Professor of Hebrew at Cambridge.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Lancelot Andrews was selected to work on the Old Testament at Westminster, and worked on twelve books, Genesis to 2 Kings. Dr. Andrews spoke almost all of the languages spoken in Europe in the seventeenth century. He majored in language at Cambridge University, especially studying the Oriental tongues. Dr. Andrews is said to have been completely fluent in fifteen languages, and had his private devotions in the Greek New Testament, and kept a journal of his devotions written entirely in Greek.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. William Bedwell was also selected to work on the Old Testament at Westminster, working on the same books as Dr. Andrews. Dr. Bedwell was not only fluent in Hebrew and other Oriental languages, but produced a translation of the Epistles of John in Arabic and Latin. He also wrote an entire Arabic dictionary by himself! At the time of his death Dr. Bedwell was working on a Persian dictionary which is still in the Bodlian Library at Oxford. Dr. Bedwell's knowledge of the Shemitic and Cognate languages of Hebrew, Persian, Arabic, Syriac, Aramaic, and Coptic made him an uncontestable expert on the translation of the Hebrew Old Testament into English.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Miles Smith was in the Old Testament group meeting at Oxford, and was selected to translate the books from Isaiah through Malachi. Dr. Smith was so familiar with the Hebrew, Syriac, and Arabic languages that they were as familiar to him as his native English.[bless and do not curse]

Dr. Henry Savile was selected to work with the group that was to translate the New Testament at Oxford. He was chosen to translate the Gospels, the Book of Acts, and the Revelation. Dr. Savile was said to be as great a mathematician as he was a Greek scholar. He was chosen to tutor Queen Elizabeth in both mathematics and Greek. Dr. Savile was not only famous for his translation of the great history of Tacitus from Latin into English, but also translated the mathematical work of Euclid on geometry from Greek into English. However, Dr. Savile was most famous for his editing and translating of the complete works of John Chrysostom, one of the most famous of the early Greek church fathers, from the Greek into English. This was a work similar in size to eight very large dictionaries![bless and do not curse]

Dr. John Bois was a New Testament translator at Cambridge. At the age of five he had read the entire Bible in Hebrew. At the age of six he could write the Hebrew language in "a fair and elegant" hand. He was equally skilled in Greek. He was one of the twelve, two from each committee, who were sent to make the final revision at Stationer's Hall in London. On top of all of his other duties, he was the secretary for the final revision committee, taking notes on all of the meetings. It is largely through his notes that we have knowledge of the inner workings of the committee in this day and age.[bless and do not curse]

The above cited men were of such stature that they cannot be equaled today. Our system of education is not nearly as thorough as was the educational system that produced these great men. There is not a single translator of any modern version that can even come close to the stature of these great men. Our King James Bible is superior to all others not only because it is translated from superior texts, but because it was translated by superior translators.”

Do you believe you are more qualified to translate the scriptures than these men?

By the way, please take the time to read his entire article.

http://wilderness-cry.net/bible_study/kjvissue/criticism1.html

Jack
 
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J

Jack Koons

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By the way DeaconDean,

“How did the KJ translators, using Erasmus' Textus Receptus get so wrong?”

If you really want to debate Erasmus and the King James, I have a thread about that already. I welcome your input. But when I answer you directly, please don't accuse me of singling you out. This is a PUBLIC FORUM, when you type it, be ready to defend it.

Jack
 
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DeaconDean

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Jack, I cannot see anything you post.

In fact, whenever you post, here is what I see:

This message is hidden because Jack Koons is on your ignore list.

Can I be any clearer?

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Folks, let me say again, that while I personally use the KJV, I have found in some places where the KJV lacks the..umph that is required by the Greek words.

Another example is Romans 1:25.

"Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen."

In the Greek, we read:

"οἵτινες μετήλλαξαν τὴν ἀλήθειαν τοῦ θεοῦ ἐν τῷ ψεύδει, καὶ ἐσεβάσθησαν καὶ ἐλάτρευσαν τῇ κτίσει παρὰ τὸν κτίσαντα, ὅς ἐστιν εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας: ἀμήν." -Rom. 1:25 (GNT)

The word I want to focus on is "εὐλογητὸς".

Properly defined, it means:

2128 εὐλογητὸς -worthy of praise or blessing, blessed

The New Analytical Greek Lexicon, Wesley J. Perschbacher, Hendrickson Publishing Company, Peabody, Mass., Copyright 1990, "εὐλογητὸς", p. 181

Not that "blessed" isn't a good rendering, taken in context, the earlier rendering fits the context.

God, the most Gracious, is the only one worthy of praise.

So here, in another location, while correct and incorrect, its lacks the umph that Paul was communicating, and the KJV translators did not pick up on.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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canisee said:
Mark 16:16 does not contradict salvation by faith; it compliments it. Most people focus on Mark 16:16a, and forget there is a Mark 16:16 b.

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

There are many who say "I believe, I believe"!, but have no desire to be baptized. Why is baptism so important? Because it is the person's PUBLIC profession of FAITH!

Hum...

I wonder how many millions of people, who were sincere on their death beds, or at execution times who repented and confessed but were not baptized and therefore were not saved because "it is the person's PUBLIC profession of FAITH"?

As Arsenio Hall so often said:



Arsenio Hall said:
Things that make you go Hmmmm.

Points to ponder.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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DeaconDean

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Folks, I'm gonna be blunt and to the point.

Here is a list of existing New Testament Papyri:

List of New Testament papyri - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Of the Papyri listed, only two contain anything of the Gospel of Mark; p45 and p88. One dates to around AD 250, the other AD 350. The p45 contains Mark chapters 4-9, 11-12; and the other Mark chapter 2.

Of the surviving Codexes (complete New Testaments), Sinaiticus and Vaticanus (circa 4th century) they only contain through Mark 16:8.

One other thing I learned while taking Greek, is that the rules for Greek are the same as in English. Both languages are heavy in grammer.

In the Greek text, the Greek word "kai" is used between believe and baptized.

"Kai" is a conjunnction meaning "and", and the definition for a conjunction is: "words that connect words, phrases or clauses together".

According to Mark 16:16, the one who believes and is baptized is saved.

"Kai" in between bel;ieve and baptized links these two things together.

In math, the equasion would look like: 1+2=3

According to Mark 16:16: belief plus baptism equals salvation.

The "authenicity" of the last 12 verses of Mark 16 remains in doubt and stand in contrst to what is taught in the other gospels.

Johnny Cochran said in court:

If the gloves don't fit, you must aquit.

Mark 16:16 is not in harmony with the Gospel of Mark itself and it is not in harmony with the other Gospels, therefore it is in doubt.

The doctrine of baptism as a sign of death, burial, and resurrection with Jesus was not developed until around the late AD 60's accordiong to Paul.

Even the very best guess at when the Gospel of Mark was written only dates to around the AD 60's. DId John Mark borrow from Paul when the last twelve verses were penned?

There is no evidence of that as Mark shows no signs of Pauline theology,

So, even though one person here vehemently disagrees with me, the evidence, papyri and codexes, along with the rules of Greek grammer are in my favor.

According to the rules of Greek grammer, belief and baptism equals saved. That is the message of Mark 16:16.

And by all the rules of grammer, most especially Greek grammer, I am right, and nothing can change that.

God Bless

Till all are one.
 
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Bob Carabbio

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"Where has God preserved His Words, and kept them pure?"

Right where they've ALWAYS been, of course. The Holy Spirit has 'em, and stands ready to give WISDOM - to anybody who asks for it single mindedly.

Simple as that.
 
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J

Jack Koons

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Folks, I'm gonna be blunt and to the point.

Here is a list of existing New Testament Papyri:

List of New Testament papyri - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Of the Papyri listed, only two contain anything of the Gospel of Mark; p45 and p88. One dates to around AD 250, the other AD 350. The p45 contains Mark chapters 4-9, 11-12; and the other Mark chapter 2.

Of the surviving Codexes (complete New Testaments), Sinaiticus and Vaticanus (circa 4th century) they only contain through Mark 16:8.

One other thing I learned while taking Greek, is that the rules for Greek are the same as in English. Both languages are heavy in grammer.

In the Greek text, the Greek word "kai" is used between believe and baptized.

"Kai" is a conjunnction meaning "and", and the definition for a conjunction is: "words that connect words, phrases or clauses together".

According to Mark 16:16, the one who believes and is baptized is saved.

"Kai" in between bel;ieve and baptized links these two things together.

In math, the equasion would look like: 1+2=3

According to Mark 16:16: belief plus baptism equals salvation.

The "authenicity" of the last 12 verses of Mark 16 remains in doubt and stand in contrst to what is taught in the other gospels.

Johnny Cochran said in court:



Mark 16:16 is not in harmony with the Gospel of Mark itself and it is not in harmony with the other Gospels, therefore it is in doubt.

The doctrine of baptism as a sign of death, burial, and resurrection with Jesus was not developed until around the late AD 60's accordiong to Paul.

Even the very best guess at when the Gospel of Mark was written only dates to around the AD 60's. DId John Mark borrow from Paul when the last twelve verses were penned?

There is no evidence of that as Mark shows no signs of Pauline theology,

So, even though one person here vehemently disagrees with me, the evidence, papyri and codexes, along with the rules of Greek grammer are in my favor.

According to the rules of Greek grammer, belief and baptism equals saved. That is the message of Mark 16:16.

And by all the rules of grammer, most especially Greek grammer, I am right, and nothing can change that.

God Bless

Till all are one.



DeacanDean,

The only conclusion that can be drawn from your last statement:

“And by all the rules of grammer, most especially Greek grammer, I am right, and[bless and do not curse]nothing[bless and do not curse]can change that.”

… is that you believe yourself to know more than the following men about the Greek language:

HTML document

The following excerpts were taken from the above site:

“Dr. Lancelot Andrews was selected to work on the Old Testament at Westminster, and worked on twelve books, Genesis to 2 Kings. Dr. Andrews spoke almost all of the languages spoken in Europe in the seventeenth century. He majored in language at Cambridge University, especially studying the Oriental tongues. Dr. Andrews is said to have been completely fluent in fifteen languages, and had his private devotions in the Greek New Testament, and kept a journal of his devotions written entirely in Greek.”

“Dr. Henry Savile was selected to work with the group that was to translate the New Testament at Oxford. He was chosen to translate the Gospels, the Book of Acts, and the Revelation. Dr. Savile was said to be as great a mathematician as he was a Greek scholar. He was chosen to tutor Queen Elizabeth in both mathematics and Greek. Dr. Savile was not only famous for his translation of the great history of Tacitus from Latin into English, but also translated the mathematical work of Euclid on geometry from Greek into English. However, Dr. Savile was most famous for his editing and translating of the complete works of John Chrysostom, one of the most famous of the early Greek church fathers, from the Greek into English. This was a work similar in size to eight very large dictionaries!”

“Dr. John Bois was a New Testament translator at Cambridge. At the age of five he had read the entire Bible in Hebrew. At the age of six he could write the Hebrew language in "a fair and elegant" hand. He was equally skilled in Greek. He was one of the twelve, two from each committee, who were sent to make the final revision at Stationer's Hall in London. On top of all of his other duties, he was the secretary for the final revision committee, taking notes on all of the meetings. It is largely through his notes that we have knowledge of the inner workings of the committee in this day and age.”

Richard Bancroft’s Rules for translating the King James Bible (1604)

The following excerpt was taken form the above site:


“RICHARD BANCROFT’S RULES TO BE OBSERVED IN THE TRANSLATION OF THE BIBLE.

1. The ordinary Bible read in the church, commonly called the Bishops’ Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the truth of the original will permit.
2. The names of the prophets, and the holy writers, with the other names in the text, to be retained as near as may be, accordingly as they are vulgarly used.
3. The old ecclesiastical words to be kept, namely, as the word church not to be translated congregation &c.
4. When any word hath divers significations, that to be kept which hath been most commonly used by the most eminent Fathers, being agreeable to the propriety of the place, and the analogy of faith.
5. The division of the chapters to be altered either not at all, or as little as may be, if necessity so require.
6. No marginal notes at all to be affixed, but only for the explanation of the Hebrew or Greek words, which cannot without some circumlocution so briefly and fitly be expressed in the text.
7. Such quotations of places to be marginally set down, as shall serve for the fit reference of one Scripture to another.
8. Every particular man of each company to take the same chapter or chapters; and having translated or amended them severally by himself, where he thinks good, all to meet together, confer what they have done, and agree for their part what shall stand.
9. As any one company hath dispatched any one book in this manner, they shall send it to the rest, to be considered of seriously and judiciously; for his Majesty is very careful in this point.
10. If any company, upon the review of the book so sent, shall doubt or differ upon any places, to send them word thereof, note the places, and therewithal send their reasons; to which if they consent not, the difference to be compounded at the general meeting, which is to be of the chief persons of each company, at the end of the work.
11. When any place of special obscurity is doubted of, letters to be directed by authority, to send to any learned man in the land for his judgment in such a place.
12. Letters to be sent from every Bishop to the rest of his clergy, admonishing them of this Translation in hand; and to move and charge as many as, being skilful in the tongues, have taken pains in that kind, to send his particular observations to the company, either at Westminster, Cambridge, or Oxford.
13. The directors in each company to be the Deans of Westminster and Chester, for that place; and the King’s Professors in the Hebrew and Greek in either University.
14. These translations to be used, when they agree better with the text than the Bishops’ Bible:
Tyndale’s,
Matthew’s,
Coverdale’s,
Whitchurch’s [Great],
Geneva.
15. Besides the said directions before mentioned, three or four of the most ancient and grave divines in either of the Universities, not employed in translating, to be assigned by the Vice-Chancellor, upon conference with the rest of the Heads, to be overseers of the Translations, as well Hebrew as Greek, for the better observation of the fourth rule above specified.”


Dr Thomas Cassidy makes the following remarks in light of rules #8 – 10 above:

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The following excerpt is from the above site:

“Team Effort. Each translator had to translate all of the books assigned to his group by himself, then all of the translators from the group would meet together to discuss which of the translations was best. After all of the committee, working together, had decided which translation was the best, a copy of the translation of the book would be sent to one of the other cities where another committee was working, and they would meet and review the other committees' translation, while the first committee was reviewing the second committee's translation. This process would continue until all six committees had reviewed every book that had been translated. Then the book would be reviewed again by the committee of twelve, two from each of the six committees. If they found any problems, they would send word to the committee responsible for the translation, and their reasons for translating the problem passage in that way would be reviewed. In the end, all of the people on all of the committees would have to be in total agreement before the translation was considered to be complete, and they would go on to the next book! Such a painstaking team effort is unheard of today, which probably explains why there is so much disagreement as to the proper translation of the Bible today. There is almost a "Bible of the Month" club, bringing out some "new," "better," and "easier" version before the last one has had a chance to be read.”

Are you more knowledgeable than these men?

“And by all the rules of grammer, most especially Greek grammer, I am right, and[bless and do not curse]nothing[bless and do not curse]can change that.”

This kind of statement makes me wonder if God is in Heaven saying, “Why in the world did I choose those stupid men to translate the King James Bible, IF I had only waited until 2013, I could have had DeaconDean translate the Greek into English (having then the DeaconDean Version [DDV]), and then English speaking people would have a 'perfect' translation, because he is right, “and nothing can change that”.

Jack
 
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cubanito

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So, who killed Goliath? According to the HEBREW of 2 Chronicles 21:19 it was Elhanan. The KJV adds in italics words WHICH ARE NOT THERE to remove the TEXTUAL ERROR of the Hebrew that Elhanan slew the brother of Goliath, but the Hebrew does not have that.

See 2 Samuel 21:19 - Just Who Killed Goliath?

20 years ago I had a Bible where I had written a list of these textual errors, and I can not find it. It is however easy to find these "contradictions" in the Bible which, to someone like me that allows for textual errors, are no contradictions at all.

But for you that believe a 100% pristine transmission, who killed Goliath?

JR

In my great humility and self-efacement, I love quoting myself almost as much as the other Jesus. (PS that was a type of humor which I call auto-sarcasm, where I make fun of my arrogance)

JR: Jesus Ramon Rodriguez de la Torre Contreras Perez y Suarez
 
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Second Phoenix

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When discussing the preservation of the Text of the New Testament, a question is always put forth about which Text has been preserved since the original autographs? It is my opinion (whatever that is worth) that, while this seems to be a truly valid question on the surface; is it really nothing more than a question designed by textual criticism, to force their opponents to prove this via MS evidence, which they know doesn't exist. The problem is that EVERYTHING about the Bible has everything to do with FAITH. Faith in the WORD of God. Not the 'story-line' of the Bible, but faith in each and every 'word of God' given and counted as Scripture.

Depending on who you might ask, some 90 to 99% of the Bible is supposed to be pure. It is also stated that those parts which are in doubt are nonessential to any Bible doctrine. (I for one would hate to be the person standing before God explaining that point.)

So the question of this thread is simply this: Keeping Proverbs 30:5 (Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.) in mind, Where has God preserved His Words, and kept them pure?

Jack

I don't understand what you mean by pure? Scholarly evidence shows even smaller letters, such as those actually written by Paul, were edited - compilations of several letters.Do you believe that each book of the bible was written by a single author?
 
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Second Phoenix

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Try this one on for the "original autographs" issue. It is where I stand:

"For ever, O LORD, thyword is settled in heaven." Psalm 119:89

Heaven is where the REAL "original autographs" are kept. God knew he couldn't entrust them to "scholars," so he gave his word to the common people. That is why SO many great copies are kept in the vernaculars.

"Thyword is true from the beginning: and every one of thy righteous judgments endureth for ever." Psalm 119:160


The issue really lies in the integrity of God, i.e., Did He do what He said He'd do? Harping on "a version" is a sidetrack. Did God send it from His library in heaven, is it true from the beginning, will every one of his judgments (words) endure forever?

It's really nuts and bolts. Scholars cloud the issue with their Codex This and Papri That. Did God keep His word? You really can't get beyond to which until you decide those issues there.

Interesting- I know that Muhammad taught this view (of the Quran). Do you know if this view was shared by the Jews?

Do you believe that God's word refers only to what is written in scripture?
 
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Second Phoenix

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Let me begin by saying that I absolutely agree that God does indeed have His Word perfectly preserved in Heaven. The problem I have is that men, (or shall I say many scholars), believe that God have mankind His Word without error (via inspiration), but then relied upon the ability of men to keep it 'mostly' pure.

I noticed you capitalize Word in your post, which is often used to refer to Christ, while scripture has the lower case.

When you say it is perfectly preserved in Heaven, do you imagine there is some actual book or in some form God perfectly preserved the words of the bible's authors?

Do you believe that the bible is a revelation about Jesus Christ? In other words, it is what God has revealed about His Son, who is the Word. In that way, wouldn't Jesus be the perfectly preserved word, and not some words about Him?
 
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Second Phoenix

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1- God's Word being perfectly preserved in Heaven is definitely True.

You mean the literal words of the bible?
Do you believe then, that God was telling the bible's authors every little word?

2- God's Word being preserved sufficiently pure on Earth so that no point of doctrine is in question is also True.

What are you basing this on?
Are you saying that Christians don't disagree on doctrine?

3- Koons and I disagree on wether the copies of original autographs available to us today can be reconstructed to a text that is 100% accurate and precise.

To what would it be accurate?
 
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