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So Paul was addressing the Gentiles so that they may become Muslims?I asked about Christians, not gentiles.
In the passage you quoted this invitation occurred after the first meeting with Paul in attendance at the synagogue. There were no Christians there at this point. So please try again.
Why would Paul address the gentiles on a Sabbath and then seek to have the keep Sunday? Note that this occasion was not with the Jews nor in the synagogue. Would it not have to do with the fact that the Sabbath was still the day of worship, would it? Or is Paul a hypocrite?
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