OK, here it is in very simple yet plain terms. Godless men put Jesus in a "place" where He could pay for the sins of the whole world. An "instant" killing of any kind, whether by knife, gun, etc, would not have allowed Him the necessary time to bear the sins of the whole world.
If so, why the necessity of the cross, and the time involved? For no reason? I surely doubt that.
And the cross was the official and legal method of execution in the Roman Empire. Jesus was executed by Roman law. Not that the crucifixion killed Him, as I've already explained.
Every time the Bible mentions the "death of Christ" or the "blood of Christ", it refers to His spiritual death.
It's very sad how poorly pastors have been taught basic doctrines, so that the vast majority of believers have no idea or clue as to what really happened on the cross.
I've given verses to support my understanding. All you and others have done is disagree. So, if I'm wrong, where is the actual refutation from Scripture?