eclipsenow said in post 919:
Did I, or did I not, ask you never to repeat this paragraph again because I've addressed it multiple, multiple, multiple times?
Can you give an example of where you have actually addressed each point in the "Revelation is almost entirely literal" paragraph, and proven from the scriptures themselves that each point is in error, instead of simply dismissing the whole thing as "rubbish", or something like that?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
I've addressed your 'arguments' in that paragraph repeatedly for the last year, showing how just because Revelation contains the gospel promise of Jesus eventual return does NOT make it a literal timetable of the last decades of human history.
Note that the paragraph doesn't say that Revelation is almost entirely literal or a timetable just because Revelation contains Jesus' return.
Also, can you given an example of how you have proven from the scriptures themselves that Revelation chapters 6-22 are
not almost entirely literal, and are
not a timetable?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
What do you think? All of them.
Are you saying that Revelation contains all Biblical symbols? If not, can you show the Biblical symbols which you feel Revelation does contain? That is, can you show how each detail in Revelation was used as a symbol is earlier books of the Bible?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
But even if I were not referring to all of them, you at least know how the scholars I read view Revelation 20 and the symbol of the Millennium, where they explain how Judgement Day was in fact looked at from a number of different angles in the previous few chapters.
Regarding "the symbol of the Millennium", how has it been proven that the Millennium cannot be literal?
Also, how do you feel that the scholars you're referring to have proven that the final judgment day of Revelation 20:11-15 appears anywhere earlier in Revelation?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
Symbols like Jesus having 7 eyes and 7 horns and John writing to the 7 churches (when there were far more than 7 in Asia Minor) and the number of plagues and bowls etc all being SEVEN show that John is using the number in Jewish symbolism, as God's perfect number. These are NOT literal numbers, because John's use of the number in describing Jesus eyes and horns also shows us how he uses it in the rest of the book.
How has it been proven that any seven in Revelation is not literal? For even in Revelation 5:6, while the horns and eyes are symbolic, they can represent literal things, so that the number seven can refer literally to seven things. The seven horns of the Jesus lamb in Revelation 5:6 could represent Jesus holding literally seven positions of power at the same time (compare Jesus wearing many crowns at the same time in Revelation 19:12). These seven positions of power could be, for example, Jesus' power as the Son of God (Revelation 2:18), his power as the Word of God (Revelation 19:13), his power as the King of kings (Revelation 19:16), his power as the Lord of lords (Revelation 19:16), his power as High Priest (Hebrews 3:1), his power as the King of Israel (John 12:13), and his power as the Lamb of God (John 1:29).
And Revelation 5:6 tells us what the seven eyes of the Jesus lamb represent: "the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth". These can literally be seven Spirits of God, which could be: the Spirit of the Lord, the Spirit of wisdom, the Spirit of understanding, the Spirit of counsel, the Spirit of might, the Spirit of knowledge, and the Spirit of the fear of the Lord (Isaiah 11:2).
eclipsenow said in post 919:
Symbols like Jesus having 7 eyes and 7 horns and John writing to the 7 churches (when there were far more than 7 in Asia Minor) and the number of plagues and bowls etc all being SEVEN show that John is using the number in Jewish symbolism, as God's perfect number.
Regarding "there were far more than 7 in Asia Minor", how many more? And in what cities were they located? Also, how would there being any more than seven require that the seven are not literal? For the seven can be the only churches in literal Roman "Asia" (what is today Western Turkey) who sent messengers to John on the island of Patmos, which was just off the coast of Roman "Asia". For the "angels" of the seven literal, first century AD local church congregations in seven cities in the Roman province of "Asia" (Revelation 1:20, Revelation 1:11) could have been seven human messengers sent by those churches to John on Patmos (Revelation 1:9). For in Revelation 1:20, the original Greek word (aggelos, G0032) translated as "angels" can refer to human "messengers" (Luke 7:24).
eclipsenow said in post 919:
The scholars I refer to also back up that this would have been the way the original church received it.
How do they back that up?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
I listed the majority of times 1000 was used and showed how they were clearly metaphorical.
There are 521 instances of "thousand" in the Bible. How many of those did you list and prove to be only metaphorical?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
EG: "God owns the cattle on 1000 hills..." What about all the other hills?
How does that require that the "thousand" in Revelation 20:1-6 is not literal, or that the majority of the over 500 other instances of "thousand" in the Bible are not literal?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
I already did that when I went back and showed that none of your verses indicated that there was a Sevenfold Holy Spirit, which you justify because you want all the numbers in Revelation to be LITERAL.
How have you proven that the referenced verses don't support the idea that the one Holy Spirit of God could at the same time be the seven Spirits of God (Revelation 1:4, Revelation 3:1, Revelation 4:5, Revelation 5:6), which could be the Spirit of the Lord, the Spirit of wisdom, the Spirit of understanding, the Spirit of counsel, the Spirit of might, the Spirit of knowledge, and the Spirit of the fear of the Lord (Isaiah 11:2)?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
I'm done trying to discuss the genre of Revelation with you as you've repeatedly refused to answer the points here.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7473.../#post62706837
That was post 892 of this thread, the points of which were addressed in the latter half of post 915.
eclipsenow said in post 919:
... [your] "It has been shown that Revelation is almost entirely literal because it is unsealed.." paragraph, which makes no sense of the genre and misapplies the 'unsealed' description to mean 'literal' (which it doesn't),
Regarding "which makes no sense of the genre", Revelation itself can be almost entirely literal because, as scripture, it's not bound by any man-made ideas regarding any made-made categories for writings in general. Revelation, like other scripture, was written by the inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16), meaning that it was not written by the will of man, but written by a holy man as he was moved by the Holy Spirit to write it (compare 2 Peter 1:21), so that the words of Revelation are what the Holy Spirit himself spoke (compare Acts 1:16, Acts 28:25b). And nothing about these words requires that Revelation can't be almost entirely literal.
eclipsenow said in post 919:
... [your] "It has been shown that Revelation is almost entirely literal because it is unsealed.." paragraph, which makes no sense of the genre and misapplies the 'unsealed' description to mean 'literal' (which it doesn't),
Regarding "misapplies the 'unsealed' description to mean 'literal'", are you saying that "unsealed" means "symbolic"? If so, how? For wouldn't it make more sense for something unsealed to consist almost entirely of literal statements, rather than mysterious symbols?
That is post 919, the one being addressed in this post.
eclipsenow said in post 919:
We do no agree on the basic genre, the basic 'rules of engagement' with this book, so I don't know why you insist on blurting out the obsessively detailed rubbish 'timetables' you indulge in so much?
How have they been proven to be rubbish?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
I'm not going to debate your precious, sidetracking *details* when you cannot cite one scholar that agrees that Revelation should be read literally.
How have you shown that even one scholar has proven, based on the scriptures themselves (compare Isaiah 8:20b) and not on any man-made ideas (compare 1 Corinthians 1:20), that Revelation should
not be read almost entirely literally?
eclipsenow said in post 919:
If you cannot find credible reasons to read it literally, why would I take anything you say seriously?
How have the reasons given been proven to be not credible?