eclipsenow said in post 903:
2 Peter 3:10-13 = DAY OF LORD = like a thief = "a new heaven and a new earth, where righteousness dwells."
Regarding 2 Peter 3:10-13, in the day of the Lord will occur the destruction of heaven (the first heaven: the sky, the atmosphere) and the earth (the surface of the earth) at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11, Revelation 21:1). And this will be followed by the creation of a new atmosphere and surface for the earth (2 Peter 3:13, Revelation 21:1) onto which New Jerusalem, the Father's house (John 14:2, Revelation 21:2-3), will descend from the third heaven (Revelation 21:2-3). But the day of the Lord will not immediately bring the destruction of earth's atmosphere and surface, for the day of the Lord will begin at Jesus' second coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8) as a thief (2 Peter 3:10a, Revelation 16:15). And after his second coming, he will establish his kingdom physically on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for a thousand years (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Zechariah 14:3-21).
And after the thousand years, the Gog/Magog rebellion will occur (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39). And after its defeat at least seven more years will occur (Ezekiel 39:9b) before the earth's atmosphere and surface are destroyed at the great white throne judgment (Revelation 20:11). All these events, from Jesus' second coming to the great white throne judgment, will be part of the day of the Lord, for it is not a 24-hour day, but to God is like a thousand-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8).
eclipsenow said in post 903:
Luke 20:35: "But those who are considered worthy of taking part in the age to come and in the resurrection of the dead will neither marry nor be given in marriage,"
Luke 20:35 doesn't mean that there won't be mortal, married, unresurrected, unsaved people in the current age's final stage, i.e. the future millennium (e.g. Zech. 14:16-19).
eclipsenow said in post 903:
1 Corinthians 15
"50 I declare to you, brothers and sisters, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.
1 Cor. 15:50 refers to people in mortal/corruptible flesh and blood bodies, as opposed to people in immortal/incorruptible, resurrection "flesh and bone" bodies (possibly without blood as we know it) like Jesus was resurrected into (Lk. 24:39, 1 Cor. 15:21-23,51-53, Philip. 3:21, Rom. 8:23-25). 1 Cor. 15:50 means that people in mortal/corruptible flesh and blood bodies won't inherit the eternal (as opposed to the millennial) aspect of the kingdom of God, which will be on the new earth in the descended New Jerusalem (Rev. 21:1-22:15) after the future millennium and subsequent events are over (Rev. 20:7-22:15). For the elect Jews who won't become believers until Jesus' second coming (Rom. 11:25-29, Zech. 12:10-14) could inherit the millennial kingdom (Zech. 14:5-21, Mt. 19:28, Lk. 22:30) in their mortal bodies. For the resurrection/changing of believers into immortal bodies (1 Cor. 15:21-23,51-53) could be experienced only by those who had become believers before the second coming.
Also, the people left alive at the second coming (Mt. 24:39b-40) who won't get saved at that time will also enter the millennial kingdom in their mortal bodies, but without inheriting it, for they will be its forced subjects (Zech. 14:16-19, Ps. 66:3), ruled over with a rod of iron by Jesus and the church (Rev. 2:26-29, Rev. 5:10, Rev. 20:4-6, Ps. 2).
Also, regarding the third-heaven aspect of the kingdom, just as people on the earth can be brought into someone's house and stay there for awhile without inheriting that house, so people in their mortal bodies can be taken up to the third heaven and stay there for awhile without inheriting the third heaven. For at the time of Rev. 11:11-12, the two witnesses will be in resuscitated mortal bodies (like, for example, the resuscitated mortal bodies of Lazarus and Tabitha: Jn. 11:43-44, Acts 9:36-40). For the resurrection of believers into immortal bodies won't happen until Jesus' second coming (1 Cor. 15:21-23,52-53, 1 Thes. 4:15-16, Rev. 19:7-20:6), which won't happen until after the entire future tribulation of Rev. chs. 6-18/Mt. 24 is over (Mt. 24:29-31, Rev. 19:7-20:6). Also, Rev. 11:12 doesn't say that when the two witnesses will ascend "up" to the third heaven in their mortal bodies they will inherit the third heaven, just as when Paul says he at one point during his lifetime could have been taken to the third heaven in his mortal body (2 Cor. 12:2-7), he doesn't say that he inherited the third heaven, and just as when Enoch and Elijah were taken to the third heaven in their mortal bodies (Heb. 11:5, 2 Kin. 2:11), it doesn't say that they inherited the third heaven.
eclipsenow said in post 903:
Revelation is full of biblical symbols and is not dependent on modern newspaper headlines and geopolitics to understand.
What Biblical symbols are you referring to?
Also, futurism considers today's headlines regarding such things as geopolitics and technology, in order to help believers consider different ways for how exactly the never-fulfilled, yet still understandable, and almost entirely literal, highly-detailed prophecies in Revelation chapters 6 to 18 might be fulfilled in our future. For example, Christians at any time in the past could understand that Revelation 6:4-8 refers to a horrible, literal war which will start the tribulation, and which, with its aftermath of famines and epidemics, will end up killing a fourth of the world. They could understand this without having to know, for example, what nation will start the war, or what weapons will be employed in the war. All futurism does is consider these things.
For another example, Christians at any time in the past could understand that Revelation 13:14-15 refers to a literal image (Greek: "eikon", something made in the likeness) of the Antichrist, which will appear to be alive, which will speak, and which people will have to worship or be killed. Christians in the past could understand this without having to know, for example, whether the image will be two-dimensional or three-dimensional (or both), or what it will be made of, or how it will be made to speak and appear to be alive. All futurism does is consider these things.
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eclipsenow said in post 892:
It's all an exercise in justifying what virtually no Revelation scholar I'm aware of thinks, that Revelation is literal. It's not.
How has it been shown not to be almost entirely literal? It has been shown that Revelation is almost entirely literal because it is unsealed (Revelation 22:10), meaning that it should not be difficult for saved people of any time to understand it if they simply read it as it is written: chronologically and almost-entirely literally. The few parts of it that are symbolic are almost always explained afterward (for example, Revelation 1:20, Revelation 17:9-12). And Revelation's few symbols not explained afterward (for example, Revelation 13:2) are usually explained elsewhere in the Bible (for example, Daniel 7:4-7,17). Just as Jesus' second coming in Revelation 19:7 to 20:3 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally, so the events of the preceding tribulation in Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally. Also, the millennium in Revelation 20 will be literal, and will begin after Jesus' second coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21), when he will reign on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11). After that, the events of Revelation 20:7 to 22:5 will occur literally.
eclipsenow said in post 892:
For my part, I'm resting on the credentials of Dr Paul Barnett's historical and theological career, and his commentary on Revelations that says there were more than seven churches across Asia Minor at the time.
How many more? And in what cities were they located?
eclipsenow said in post 892:
It's just nonsense . . .
How has the statement that Revelation is almost entirely literal been shown to be nonsense?
eclipsenow said in post 892:
I've addressed your 'arguments' in that paragraph repeatedly for the last year, showing how just because Revelation contains the gospel promise of Jesus eventual return does NOT make it a literal timetable of the last decades of human history.
How have Revelation chapters 6-22 been shown to not be a timetable? It has been shown that they are a timetable, insofar as the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will begin with the events of the second through sixth seals, occurring in the order shown in Revelation 6:3-14. After the events of the sixth seal, Revelation 7 will occur. Then the seventh seal will be unsealed and out of it will come the tribulation's seven trumpets (Revelation 8:1-6). Then the events of the first six trumpets in Revelation 8:7 to Revelation 9:21 will occur in the order shown there. Then Revelation 10 will occur. Then the literal 3.5 years of the Antichrist's worldwide reign will occur, which time period is shown from four different angles in Revelation chapters 11 to 14 (Revelation 11:2b-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Revelation 13:5,7, Revelation 14:9-13).
Then the seventh trumpet will sound, announcing the legal end of the Antichrist's reign (Revelation 11:15). Out of the seventh trumpet's heavenly temple opening will come the seven plagues of the seven vials (Revelation 11:19, Revelation 15:5 to 16:1), the tribulation's final stage. Then the events of the seven vials will occur in the order shown in Revelation 16. Jesus will return right after the seventh vial (Revelation 16:17,19, Revelation 19:2-21), and he will marry the church at that time (Revelation 19:7). Then he will defeat the unsaved world (Revelation 19:11 to 20:3), and he will reign on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). Then the events of Revelation 20:7 to Revelation 22:5 will occur in the order shown there.
eclipsenow said in post 892:
It's just a fact that 7 is symbolic and that John is using most of the numbers in his book symbolically.
Regarding "7 is symbolic", any symbolic uses of seven in the Bible do not require that all uses of seven in Revelation or elsewhere in the Bible are symbolic. For example, just as the seven deacons in Acts 6:3-6 were literally seven people, so the seven churches in Revelation 1:11 were literally seven churches.
eclipsenow said in post 892:
It's just a fact that 7 is symbolic and that John is using most of the numbers in his book symbolically.
Regarding "John is using most of the numbers in his book symbolically", how has that been shown? Why can't all the numbers he uses be literal?
eclipsenow said in post 892:
Anyway, the few possible literal uses of 1000 you tossed at me ignore the vast majority of times 1000 is most definitely symbolic.
How has that been shown for the vast majority of times? (That is, you might consider the vast majority to be symbolic when in fact the vast majority could be literal.)
eclipsenow said in post 892:
(But your verses many not be evidence of literal uses of 1000, as I didn't have time to check all your 'quotes' and have found you to be unreliable when quoting in the past).
Can you give some examples of what you considered to be unreliable references in the past?
eclipsenow said in post 892:
John is obviously writing in the apocalyptic genre which is not literal (if you bothered to read any scholars you would know this!) and so therefore...
Regarding "the apocalyptic genre", Revelation itself can be almost entirely literal because, as scripture, it's not bound by any man-made ideas regarding any made-made categories for writings in general. Revelation, like other scripture, was written by the inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16), meaning that it was not written by the will of man, but written by a holy man as he was moved by the Holy Spirit to write it (compare 2 Peter 1:21), so that the words of Revelation are what the Holy Spirit himself spoke (compare Acts 1:16, Acts 28:25b). And nothing about these words requires that Revelation can't be almost entirely literal.
Regarding the scholars you're referring to, you will need to provide in this thread quotes (or paraphrases in your own words) of their specific arguments based on the scriptures themselves (compare Isaiah 8:20b), and not on any man-made ideas (compare 1 Corinthians 1:20).
eclipsenow said in post 892:
The style of symbolism with Jesus having 7 horns and 7 eyes is symbolic, right?
Yes, but parts of Revelation 5:6 are literal (God's throne in heaven, the four beasts, the twenty-four elders, Jesus having been slain, the seven Spirits of God, the earth) and parts of Revelation 5:6 are symbolic (Jesus being a lamb, his having seven horns, his having seven eyes).
Also, in Revelation 5:6, while the horns and eyes are symbolic, they can represent literal things, so that the number seven can refer literally to seven things. The seven horns of the Jesus lamb in Revelation 5:6 could represent Jesus holding literally seven positions of power at the same time (compare Jesus wearing many crowns at the same time in Revelation 19:12). These seven positions of power could be, for example, Jesus' power as the Son of God (Revelation 2:18), his power as the Word of God (Revelation 19:13), his power as the King of kings (Revelation 19:16), his power as the Lord of lords (Revelation 19:16), his power as High Priest (Hebrews 3:1), his power as the King of Israel (John 12:13), and his power as the Lamb of God (John 1:29).
And Revelation 5:6 tells us what the seven eyes of the Jesus lamb represent: "the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth". These can literally be seven Spirits of God, which could be: the Spirit of the Lord, the Spirit of wisdom, the Spirit of understanding, the Spirit of counsel, the Spirit of might, the Spirit of knowledge, and the Spirit of the fear of the Lord (Isaiah 11:2).